Newsome pushed back against Democracy to achieve his political goals
- By JSRG
- American Politics
- 336 Replies
Do most States in the USA have 2 houses for State legislation? (Not all Australian States do.)
Yes. I believe Nebraska is the only exception, with only one house (it was bicameral originally, but was changed to unicamera in 1934).
If so - is not the Upper House / Senate usually Proportional Representation (PR) of the entire state already?
Zero states use proportional representation right now as far as I am aware.
That's actually a good question I'm surprised I never thought about before. Why do almost all the states have bicameral legislatures?What would be the benefit in having 2 legislative assembly bodies like this?
With the federal government, the reasons are fairly obvious. The primary reason for splitting the Senate and House on the federal level, aside from obvious inspiration from the House of Lords/House of Commons setup Britain had, were:
1) A compromise between large states who wanted the congress to be population-based, and small states who wanted equal representation.
2) By having the House and Senate elected in a different manner (Senators were not elected directly by the people, but were chosen by the state legislature) you'd end up with a different kind of congressman in the Senate than the more populist House. This one is no longer applicable after it was changed in 1913 so Senators are elected by a statewide popular vote, but it is part of the original design.
3) While the House would be immediately receptive to changing opinions of voters, as all of it was up for election every two years, only 1/3 of the Senate could change every two years, creating greater stability and weathering shifts in opinion that ended up being fleeting.
But for state legislatures? #1 is irrelevant within states for obvious reasons, and #2 is irrelevant because I believe all chambers in all states are done by the same voting system (I think some states originally had them chosen in a different fashion, but that's not the case anymore), though someone can correct me on that. I believe #3 still holds, as it looks to me like upper houses of states normally have only half of their seats up for election every two years, compared to all the seats in the lower house... but I'm not sure that's enough by itself to explain a bicameral system.
Honestly, it might all boil down to "it's the way we've always done it" or "it's the way everyone else does it" as the basic reason for it being the case in states.
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