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Is there a place for "Liberal Christianity" and "Liberal theology" (Are they the same thing?) based in the Word of God and the Gospel according to Jesus Christ?
There's a fella at work who appears deeply enthralled in this brand of religion. It sounds dangerously of this world. What are your experiences with their practices beliefs, especially with respect the authority, infallibility, and inerrancy of Holy Scripture?
So this hasn't happened to me personally, since I was saved when I was a child...
However, I work for a Christian family who hires a mixture of people - saved and unsaved. One day I overheard a conversation between two workers about our employers' lives before they were Christians. The one guy knew them years ago before they were saved and was telling this younger employee about how they used to go out drinking and partying and breaking the law in subtle ways. The younger employee listened to this with satisfaction - obviously it convinced him that our employers were no different than anyone else in the world because they used to live that way. That "Christian" was just a title they gave themselves when they entered the professional...
For many years I have been struggeling with something. At a Christian festival as I sat among the people thinking about this problem an older woman (I never seen before) a few seats away started profetizing with a loud voice. It was like she was talking directly to me, starting with "So says the Lord..." and continuing with describing my problem and ending with that I didn't have to worry and that God would help me.
This is maybe five years ago and still the prophecy hasn't come true. Now I wonder why. Is it because I doubted in God's promise or because of personal sins, or maybe something else? Maybe more important, is the prophecy still valid or do think God has taken it back?
What does the word "justification" mean in Paul's sentence in Romans 5:18?
Romans 5:18 - Therefore, as one trespass led to condemnation for all men, so one act of righteousness leads to justification and life for all men.
There is obviously some parallelism going on here. Let me lay out what I see as the parallels:
Therefore, as one trespass led to condemnation (and death) for all men,
so one act of righteousness leads to justification and life for all men.
Justification is a parallel concept to condemnation in this sentence. Condemnation does not describe a moral corruption, but describes a legal sentence issued because of guilt. Criminals are condemned by a judge due to their guilt. Continuing this parallel, it must be that...
Right to it... Determinism unapologetically makes all of Creation specifically performing God’s will.
The Devil is merely an extension of God’s will, within Determinism, existing and torturing to ultimately bring Glory to God, within Determinism.
Grace is UNMERITED FAVOR. If all is God’s will, then there is no need for Grace, as even the Wicked are performing God’s will, which means they are not in rebellion of God and thusly without the need for grace.
If I hold a gun to Bob’s head and force him to kill someone innocent, Bob still has a choice to be shot or kill the innocent someone.
If I were to mind control Bob to shoot someone innocent, Bob is guiltless and the guilt of the crime rests on my head.
To say... “but if God mind...
I have recently heard one way to reconcile James with Paul, is that James made a distinction between righteousness and justification.
From this perspective, Abraham was declared righteous when he believed that God will make him a father of many. But he was only justified after he was willing to sacrifice Issac on the altar. That is what a literal reading of James 2 would imply
Thus, the view is that, before Jesus, these 2 take place at different times, one thru faith, the other thru a corresponding work.
But now, after the cross, righteousness and justification for us take place simultaneously when we accept Jesus's Death Burial Resurrection.
What do all of you think of this perspective? I know the Bible defined justified as "As if...
Looking at 1 Corinthians 13 and reference to self sacrifice, all knowing and angelic tongues, I challenge that this is not hyperbole or exaggeration as some think.
Particularly looking at this word of the apostle Paul exegetically. That what Paul meant then limits what what Paul and that passage can mean to us now.
Paul being an ancient man could not have meant to refer to the modern concept of "omniscience". In saying that he may have the the ability of prophecy to look into mysteries. The people he addressed at that time knew him and that he could reveal their secret thoughts, of sins and other good thoughts towards edification... when he preached to them live. That over time Paul could penetrate all mysteries with prophecy.
What is moralism and is it a problem?
I would understand the terms "moralism", "legalism", and "externalism" to be basically synonymous for our purposes here.
Moralism is the focus on reforming behavior while ignoring unbelief in the heart. In Romans Paul talks about the obedience of faith and the righteousness of faith. He also says that whatever does not come from faith is sin (Romans 14:23). What Paul is talking about is that true righteousness that stems from a genuine love for God and a confidence in his favor toward us.
Because of sin, all of us have a heart disposition of unbelief toward God and hatred toward God. This is the very essence of sin. The law is given to expose this slippery creature. But sinners have taken God's...