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Israel and the New Covenant.
- By Hentenza
- General Theology
- 166 Replies
Actually, yes, Jesus fulfilled all of the law including the 4th commandment. It is important to understand what Jesus actually fulfilled. The 4th commandment the same as all other commandments were ritual in nature except that for Israel they were moral. All OT law could not exist without the foundation of the levitical priesthood (Heb. 7:11). The law was given on the basis of the Levitical priesthood. Without the levitical priesthood, there is no law and the entire existence of the levitical priesthood was ritual. They carried out all of the sacrifices and ceremonies demanded by the law, and infractions against the Ten Commandments were dealt with by the priesthood. In fact, they performed or administered all the laws and consequences for moral infractions done by the Israelites. They had to offer the blood sacrifices and perform the oversight over diseases and lead the nation in worship and thanksgiving and administer justice.
The writer of Hebrews continues in chapter 7 to teach what happens after the priesthood is changed. Jesus becoming our high priest changed the priesthood from the levetical priesthood to one of Christ as our priesthood. By necessity then, a change in the law also happens. There is a nullification of a former commandment because of its weakness and uselessness. (As Paul teaches in Roman’s. 8). The law made nothing perfect.
“For when the priesthood is changed, of necessity there takes place a change of law also. For the one about whom these things are said belongs to another tribe, from which no one has officiated at the altar. For it is evident that our Lord was descended from Judah, a tribe with reference to which Moses said nothing concerning priests. And this is clearer still, if another priest arises according to the likeness of Melchizedek, who has become a priest not on the basis of a law of physical requirement, but according to the power of an indestructible life. For it is attested of Him, “You are a priest forever According to the order of Melchizedek.” For, on the one hand, there is the nullification of a former commandment because of its weakness and uselessness (for the Law made nothing perfect); on the other hand, there is the introduction of a better hope, through which we come near to God.”
Hebrews 7:12-19 NASB2020
Hebrews 7:12-19 For when the priesthood is changed, of necessity there takes place a change of law also. For the one about whom these things are said belongs to another tribe, from which no one has officiated at the | New American Standard Bible - N
For when the priesthood is changed, of necessity there takes place a change of law also. For the one about whom these things are said belongs to another tribe, from which no one has officiated at the
bible.com
So Christ indeed change the 4th commandment. Hebrews 4 is not teaching a Sabbath day but explains in detail that God set a different day because the seventh day brought no one rest Heb 4:1-3). Hebrews 4:9 is not talking about observing a day either. The Greek underlying the “sabbath rest for the people of God” is unique in the New Testament, sabbatismos. No other place in scripture is this word used. It means “a sabbath-like rest”, or “sabbathing”. It means the rest that comes from believing in Christ. It is not speaking of a day in any sense. It is referring to the new covenant fulfillment of the seventh day sabbath which is the “sabbath-like rest” that remains for a specific group of people those being “the people of God”. The people of God are all who believe. These are the ones who have passed from death to life (not a future hope but a present reality) as Jesus said in John 5:24.
The other argument that you make is that the 10 commandments are somehow different from the rest of the law simply because of the placement in the Ark and that one was written by Moses and the other by God. However, there is no such distinction in scripture. Whether God wrote it or Moses wrote it it was the law and Moses wrote it under the inspiration of God. Secondly, the law had a beginning, 430 years after Moses and ended with Christ (Gal 3:17-21). In Luke 2 the fact that they are the same comes to light. Notice that in verse 22 the Law of Moses is quoted for the new born purification but on verse 24, regarding the ritual of the sacrifice, is according to the Law of the Lord. Both of these are rituals and Luke considers both to be without distinction. The Law of Moses is the Law of God.
“And when the days for their purification according to the Law of Moses were completed, they brought Him up to Jerusalem to present Him to the Lord (as it is written in the Law of the Lord: “Every firstborn male that opens the womb shall be called holy to the Lord”), and to offer a sacrifice according to what has been stated in the Law of the Lord: “A pair of turtledoves or two young doves.””
Luke 2:22-24 NASB2020
Luke 2:22-24 And when the days for their purification according to the Law of Moses were completed, they brought Him up to Jerusalem to present Him to the Lord (as it is written in the Law of the Lord: “EVERY LORD | New American Standard Bible - NASB
And when the days for their purification according to the Law of Moses were completed, they brought Him up to Jerusalem to present Him to the Lord (as it is written in the Law of the Lord: “EVERY LORD
bible.com
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A Woman as Archbishop of Canterbury
- Bridge Builders - Moderate Christians
- 12 Replies
Yep,
.Well of course.
The Church of England is so big it encompasses Anglo-Catholics and low evangelicals. My childhood church was CofE. We had a music group - guitars, woodwind, a violin etc and informal services - and also 1662 communion with a robed choir (and about 6 in the congregation.)
Such a diverse mix sounds great, until there are differences of opinion. "High" Anglican clergy left the CofE as soon as women were ordained.
But just because something has been done a certain way for many years, it does not prove that it is the right thing to do and must never be changed or questioned.
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