That's what my questions are designed to establish.
I found this online -->
How does Adam obey God and cleave to his wife as one flesh, and yet also obey God and not eat of the fruit?
The scriptures say...
Genesis 2:16 The Lord God commanded the man, saying, “From any tree of the garden you may freely eat; 17 but from the tree of the knowledge of good and evil you shall not eat... Premise 1: God commanded the man not to eat from the tree of knowledge of good and evil.
Genesis 3:6 ...[Eve] took some of its fruit and ate; and she also gave some to her husband with her, and he ate. Premise 2: Adam ate fruit from the tree of knowledge of good and evil.
1 Timothy 2:14 Adam was not deceived, but the woman being deceived was in the transgression. Premise 3: Adam was not deceived, but - Premise 2: - ate of the fruit of the tree, Premise 1: - God commanded him not to eat.
I need clarity on this, because I'm kinda lost as to what you are saying.
First understand that when I say -->
childeye 2 said:
The scripture does not indicate in any terminology that Adam experienced any such
desire/want , I am referring to 1 Timothy 2:14.
I'm not disputing any of this --> Genesis 2:16 The Lord
God commanded the man, saying, “From any tree of the garden you may freely eat; 17
but from the tree of the knowledge of good and evil you shall not eat... Premise 1:
God commanded the man not to eat from the tree of knowledge of good and evil.
Genesis 3:6 ...[Eve] took some of its fruit and ate; and she also gave
some to her husband with her, and he ate. Premise 2:
Adam ate fruit from the
tree of knowledge of good and evil.
---------
I'm pointing out why in 1 Timothy 2:14 Paul is not conveying any sentiment that Adam wanted to disobey God <-- This is what I'm trying to get you to understand.
Are you saying Adam did not know what he was doing?
I'm not saying he did or that he didn't know what he was doing.
I don't want to lie and claim I know. For all I know Adam could've believed that Eve had entered into mortality after eating, and he decided that he didn't want to live without her, so he ate too. I don't know.
For all I know, upon finding out she had eaten, Adam was expecting her to immediately show signs of dying. But when he didn't see any, he may have wondered if He had misunderstood God, so he ate to see if the woman was correct about the fruit being good as pertains to knowledge.
The point is the scriptures do not provide details about Adam's intentions according to the description of how the events unfolded; I do know that I'm looking at two male/female images of God in two innocent souls, unaware of this knowledge of good or evil. Since I'm left projecting, then whatever I think and believe and ultimately say about them, will say more about me than it will about them. I do not want to project wickedness onto them with the neutral phrase "free will" being used as a vehicle for the negative sentiment of willful disobedience.
Having said that, I think it's possible Adam didn't know what he was doing as pertains to the full consequences of believing the woman over God. And it's also possible he knew what he was doing.
This is how it's possible. --> Given that Eve was beguiled into eating, if I were to ask Eve if she would do the same thing again knowing what she knows now, I am fairly certain she would say NO. So, I could assume If I asked the same question of Adam he might also say no too. If Adam did say no, he would not make the same decision, then it could be said he didn't know what he was doing. But if he chose to cleave to his wife, He might say he would do it again. And if he said that, then it could be said that Adam knew what he was doing.
Are you saying Adam did not deliberately, and willingly eat the fruit, knowing that it was an act of disobedience to God?
I'm saying that the scripture describes a scenario where Adam is in the circumstance of being forced to choose between who to believe, God or the woman. Assuming that Adam could have eaten of the fruit at any time of his own initiative if he wanted to, the impression is that Adam was believing God that he would die or begin dying if he ate. That would imply he did not deliberately or willingly eat the fruit.
Are you saying Adam did not choose of his own accord, to eat of the fruit of the tree, of which God commanded him not to eats.
of one's own accord
—used to indicate that someone does something because he or she wants to, not because someone has asked the person or forced him or her to do it
of one's own accord
idiom
/ʌv wʌnz oʊn əˈkɔrd/
Acting willingly and voluntarily, without external influence.
- She decided to leave the party of her own accord.
Etymology
From
accord (“spontaneous or voluntary impulse to act”).
Prepositional phrase
of one's own accord
- On one's (or its) own initiative; under one's (or its) own power, without being commanded or controlled.
----------------------
Scripture indicates that Adam Hearkened to the woman, which means to me Adam was 'persuaded' to eat. If I am correct, that would not qualify as eating of his own accord/initiative. If he desired to cleave to the woman as God had said he should, then I suppose it could be considered as eating of his own accord, but it still looks forced to me due to prior causes.