You are saying that you do not sin at all. According to you if anyone sins, they are in Satan's kingdom and not saved.
That is correct.
It is written..." Know ye not, that to whom ye yield yourselves servants to obey, his servants ye are to whom ye obey; whether of sin unto death, or of obedience unto righteousness?" (Rom 6:16)
James 2:8 If you really fulfill the royal law according to the Scripture, "You shall love your neighbor as yourself," you do well; 9 but if you show partiality, you commit sin and are convicted by the law as transgressors. 10 For whoever shall keep the whole law, and yet stumble in one point, he is guilty of all. NKJV
According to James if anyone shows partiality to a person it is a sin because we are supposed to love our neighbor as ourselves. If you break one law, you become a break the entire law.
It depends on the nature of that partiality.
Is it a sin to pick the best hitter for my baseball team ? No.
Galatians 2:11 Now when Peter had come to Antioch, I withstood him to his face, because he was to be blamed; 12 for before certain men came from James, he would eat with the Gentiles; but when they came, he withdrew and separated himself, fearing those who were of the circumcision. 13 And the rest of the Jews also played the hypocrite with him, so that even Barnabas was carried away with their hypocrisy. 14 But when I saw that they were not straightforward about the truth of the gospel, I said to Peter before them all, "If you, being a Jew, live in the manner of Gentiles and not as the Jews, why do you compel Gentiles to live as Jews? NKJV
There is no doubt in my mind the above is a true account of what Peter did.
Peter showed partiality to His Jewish brothers and would not associate with gentile Christians.
What you call a sin, I call condescending to visitors.
Do you use "the good china" when company comes over ? Or "the good towels" ?
Is that a sin ? No.
Peter wanted the visiting Jews to feel at ease.
In doing so, he inadvertently missed the opportunity to show those visiting Jews that the Law had been fulfilled in Christ and that there was no longer any separation between Jew and Gentile.
Yet you insist that no one in Christ can sin and you are sinless.
Of course, as there is no darkness in light, and thanks be to God, I walk in the light.
1 John 1:8 If we say that we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us. 9 If we confess our sins, He is faithful and just to forgive us our sins and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness. 10 If we say that we have not sinned, we make Him a liar, and His word is not in us. NKJV
The above scripture says anyone claiming to be without sin is making Jesus a liar.
John uses an A-B, A-B, A-B, style of writing in 1 John 1.
By doing so, he juxtaposes two positions against each other, showing how dissimilar they are.
The two positions are: walking in God-the light, and walking in sin-darkness.
Verses 6, 8, and 10, apply to those walking in sin.
It is those walking in sin who cannot honestly say they have no sin.
They can't say they have fellowship with God either, (v6), nor can they even say they know God ! (1 John 2:3)
Verses 5, 7, and 9, apply o those who are in, or about to enter, God-the light...in Whom is no sin-darkness.
(Paul uses the same style of writing in Rom 8, where he juxtaposes walking in the Spirit against walking in the "flesh".
Please do not reply to me on any topic or subject any more anymore.
It seemed like a waste, to not post this after spending so much time on it.