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Hentenza · Oct 26, 2025

HIM said:
He says he does.

Citation please

David Hine7 · Oct 26, 2025

Yttrium said:
Huh. Personally, I would love it if God created the universe. I'm not following your reasoning, though. Even if the equation somehow worked the way you think it does, what does that have to do with God?

First understand the equations, but if you can't just accept them as truth.

BCP1928 · Oct 26, 2025

Postvieww said:
Of course if he is mayor somebody voted for him. That said, it is a sad commentary on many voters in NY. Anyone who thinks a communist is a good choice for NY has no allegiance to the constitution.

Trump and his sycophants say he is a communist, but that's a bald-faced lie and you know it. In any case, I am not aware that the Constitution mandates any particular economic system for this country. The Constitution is about governance, not economics.

David Hine7 · Oct 26, 2025

sjastro said:
It is not a fake claim as you were not there to witness Moses and Isaiah or even definitively state they existed.
Since you seem to be alluding to Edwin Hubble get your facts straight, he was part of a scientific process where observation supported a theory.
One of the proponents of the Big Bang theory was the scientist/priest Georges Lemaître.
It was Lemaître who came up with an early estimation of the age of the universe of 2 billion years.
Are you one of these narrow minded creationists who would think this would make Lemaître a lesser Christian or not one at all?

Lamaitre was not using the universe expansion (first reported by Isaiah Ch. 40, and later by Hubble) as a challenge to God. Lamaitre claimed he was studying God's Creation (which is what non currupted PROPER non corrupted science is about) so that point you make is an invalid accusation of the integrity of Lamaitre as a worker for God.. .

BNR32FAN · Oct 26, 2025

Dan1988 said:
How do you suppose Paul knew that they were all genuine believers??? answer >>> he didn't know, because only God and the individual know. There has always been tares in every wheat field.

Yes Paul gave all of them the benefit of doubt, because He is not privileged to know w3hat God knows.

Yes he’s addressing them on the assumption that they are believers and he’s telling ALL OF THEM that they are carnal and they are NOT spiritually appraised. They can’t understand the things of God because they are acting like mere men, they’re not setting their mind on the Spirit they’re setting their mind on the flesh even tho they are believers. He’s addressing all of them, are all of them unbelievers? Are all of them tares among the wheat? He’s not telling them that they can’t be spiritually appraised, he’s telling them that they should be spiritually appraised and the reason that they’re not is because they’re setting their mind on the flesh instead of setting their mind on the Spirit. Do you think that it’s a coincidence that he just so happened to tell them how to be spiritually appraised just 2 sentences before telling them that they are still fleshly and carnal acting like mere men?

HIM · Oct 26, 2025

HIM said:
The "I" in the following passage is the writer of Hebrews which is believed to be Paul. He was quoting David in Psalm 40. There David was speaking of himself, but was also prophesying of Jesus. With that understood the "I" in the following passage is you and I also. If they said it, so should we. So that means, as Christians we come in the volume of the Book that is written of us to do thy will oh GOD.

So what Book is written of us?

Heb 10:7 Then said I, Lo, I come (in the volume of the book it is written of me,) to do thy will, O God.

Ps 40:6 Sacrifice and offering thou didst not desire; mine ears hast thou opened: burnt offering and sin offering hast thou not required.
Ps 40:7 Then said I, Lo, I come: in the volume of the book [it is] written of me,
Ps 40:8 I delight to do thy will, O my God: yea, thy law [is] within my heart. David said it of himself and of Christ. Ps 40:8 Then Paul said it of himself and Christ in Heb 10, He said, lo I come in the volume of the Book it is written of me, to do thy will oh God. There for we can, For God has said, He will put His Law into our hearts and in our minds. As He has said before in Deut. 29:1-30:14 A New Covenant I will make with you. Not like the one that was made in Horeb. For the Lord our God will circumcise our hearts and the hearts of thy seed. For the Word, the commandments and statutes contained in the Book of the Law are in our hearts and in our mouths that we do them. That is the word of faith in which we preach. The faith that makes us righteous, justifies and establishes the Law. For as by one man's disobedience many were made sinners, so by the obedience of one shall many be made righteous. They who walk after the Spirit and not after the flesh that the righteousness of the LAW be fulfilled. For they do not live by bread alone, but by every word that proceedeth out of the mouth of God

HIM said:
David said it of himself and of Christ. Ps 40:8 Then Paul said it of himself and Christ in Heb 10, He said, lo I come in the volume of the Book it is written of me, to do thy will oh God. There for we can, For God has said, He will put His Law into our hearts and in our minds. As He has said before in Deut. 29:1-30:14 A New Covenant I will make with you. Not like the one that was made in Horeb. For the Lord our God will circumcise our hearts and the hearts of thy seed. For the Word, the commandments and statutes contained in the Book of the Law are in our hearts and in our mouths that we do them. That is the word of faith in which we preach. The faith that makes us righteous, justifies and establishes the Law. For as by one man's disobedience many were made sinners, so by the obedience of one shall many be made righteous. They who walk after the Spirit and not after the flesh that the righteousness of the LAW be fulfilled.

Hentenza said:
Psalm 40:6-8 is of prophetic significance. David wrote psalm 40 but he does not appear in the volume of book ( typically the Torah). The I here is the messiah not David and definitely not Paul since these are a quote from the psalm.

He says he does.

PloverWing · Oct 26, 2025

I'll try to keep my answer within CF's rules.

stevevw said:
The thought crossed my mind. Following the logic that a archbishop or priest can be in a prascting lesbian or homosexual relationship. This could mean that a fair proportion of a congregation could also be in the same relationships.

Yes. The [Anglican] Church in Wales allows the church to bless same-sex civil unions, as does the Church of England. The Scottish Episcopal Church allows the church to conduct same-sex marriages, as does the Episcopal Church in the US. Thus, you may indeed find same-sex couples in Anglican congregations in these countries.

stevevw said:
How is this justified. They surely must know of this contradiction. They must have some reason that they can do this and still believe that are within Gods law and blessing.

This is what we cannot discuss on CF. I think I can say, as a matter of historical fact, that theologians in the churches listed above wrestled thoughtfully with this question, and that they do have reasons for the decisions they made. You may or may not agree with their reasons. The web sites of some of these churches describe their theological reasoning.

Yttrium · Oct 26, 2025

David Hine7 said:
Hubble Constant (Ho) fixed to light speed, C and calculated as 71 k/s/Mpc. God did it!!!

This short work supports the universe was Created by God. The Hubble Constant, Ho, (universe expansion) is central to Creation.
The equations here are HATED by secular science, BECAUSE they support that God Created the universe and the maths framework that controls it:-

Huh. Personally, I would love it if God created the universe. I'm not following your reasoning, though. Even if the equation somehow worked the way you think it does, what does that have to do with God?

NxNW · Oct 26, 2025

Chesterton said:
Citations needed for your entire post.

They admitted all of it. And then admitted it again when they accepted the pardon. How many times do they have to admit it?

sjastro · Oct 26, 2025

David Hine7 said:
You will find all secular guesses come from desparation to challenge God. The rule is "If the Word of God runs counter to your guesses, your guesses are wrong and will cause you deep embarrasment, and your pride a joke". There is nothing in those following equations that runs counter to God's Word:-

Hubble Constant (Ho) fixed to light speed, C and calculated as 71 k/s/Mpc

Ho is now "fixed" to local light speed, C by this simple Ho equation worked in the old algebra style of Maxwell:-

2 x oneMpc x C, divided by Pi to the power of 21 = 70.9449 k/s/Mpc

In this equation, directly input the values below:-

oneMPC is 3260000 light years

C (local) is 299792.458 k/s

Pi is 3.142..........

Astronomers measuring Ho give the "ballpark" values of Ho, and now we have an Ho equation that "fixes" Ho to
local light speed, C, which has to be much more precise.

Note:- In the numerator, distance (Mpc) is multiplied by speed (k/s), and that is NOT an error in this situation, as the "distance squared" does not affect the numerical value of the Ho redshift by
"spreading out" (as any light source does) when viewing that redshift for Ho along just
one dimension only.

The dimensionless denominator Pi^21 sets the scales of this Ho equation correctly into the Dynamic Aether framework.
The Dynamic Aether Framework is not the static aether that the Michleson-Morley experiment could not detect, but
the Dynamic Aether that Faraday knew caused electrical "reluctance", and that Maxwell used as the basis for his
electric and magnetic "inertia" constants, and used in his Aether equations to calculate light speed. C.

=============================================================================================
Hubble Constant (Ho) Hubble Horizon Distance light years calculated from Ho of 70.9449 k/s/Mpc.

oneMpc X C, divided by Ho, and then divided by one billion = 13.7758 billion light Years

In this equation, directly input the values below:-

oneMpc is 3260000 light years

C (local) is 299792.458 k/s

Ho is 70.9449 k/s/Mpc

one billion is 1,000,000,000 used to give the answer in convenient units of
billions of light years.

Note:- This Hubble Horizon Distance equation prevents falsifying the terminology of
declaring light years as years only.

Repeating the same idiotic nonsense does not make it right.

BNR32FAN · Oct 26, 2025

Dan1988 said:
Yes but your explanation of the scriptures, contradicts what God said about the matter. That's the big problem I have with your version of theology

You haven’t shown a single passage of scripture that my theology contradicts. I’m quoting scripture every single time to prove that everything I’m saying doesn’t contradict scripture.

sjastro · Oct 26, 2025

David Hine7 said:
Squinting through the eyepiece of a telescope won't tell you much about the universe. It's a fake claim to compare that to history books written by poeple of the past who were there. The Bible is also a History book of the events of Creation, where the Prophets, such as Moses and Isaiah were in direct communication with God, the Creator who explained to them about Creation. Do YOU claim what you see when squinting through your telescope reveals more than God's Word?? Remember, God did it!!!

It is not a fake claim as you were not there to witness Moses and Isaiah or even definitively state they existed.
Since you seem to be alluding to Edwin Hubble get your facts straight, he was part of a scientific process where observation supported a theory.
One of the proponents of the Big Bang theory was the scientist/priest Georges Lemaître.
It was Lemaître who came up with an early estimation of the age of the universe of 2 billion years.
Are you one of these narrow minded creationists who would think this would make Lemaître a lesser Christian or not one at all?

Postvieww · Oct 26, 2025

BCP1928 said:
Because many voters want him to be mayor.

Of course if he is mayor somebody voted for him. That said, it is a sad commentary on many voters in NY. Anyone who thinks a communist is a good choice for NY has no allegiance to the constitution.

BNR32FAN · Oct 26, 2025

Dan1988 said:
Verse 4 is not a condiment or a condition for salvation, Jesus is simply encouraging saved people to trust Him. That's why no saved person can do anything without Him. He does everything for us.

In Verse 7 He repeats the promise to encourage saved people to remain steadfast in the faith. But never does He say, I command you to abide in Me or you will lose your salvation, this is what your denomination teaches you,. but te Lord would never says something so silly.

You think God has to specifically add the words “I command you” in order for it to be a commandment when He tells someone to do something? So Noah didn’t really have to build the ark then? He was never commanded to. Moses didn’t have to go to Pharaoh or lead the Jews out of Egypt? He was never commanded to. Jonah didn’t have to go to Nineveh? He was never commanded to.

In Matthew 10 while Jesus was explaining to His disciples the importance of persevering in the face of persecution He said this…

“You will be hated by all because of My name, but it is the one who has endured to the end who will be saved.”
‭‭Matthew‬ ‭10‬:‭22‬ ‭NASB1995‬‬

He also said this…

“Do not fear those who kill the body but are unable to kill the soul; but rather fear Him who is able to destroy both soul and body in hell.”
‭‭Matthew‬ ‭10‬:‭28‬ ‭NASB1995‬‬

So are you saying that they will be saved even if they don’t endure to the end? What’s the point of telling them that they will be saved if they “endure to the end” aka “abide, stay, remain, continue” if they’re going to be saved REGARDLESS of whether or not they endure, abide, stay, remain, or continue?

David Hine7 · Oct 26, 2025

You will find all secular guesses come from desparation to challenge God. The rule is "If the Word of God runs counter to your guesses, your guesses are wrong and will cause you deep embarrasment, and your pride a joke". There is nothing in those following equations that runs counter to God's Word:-

Hubble Constant (Ho) fixed to light speed, C and calculated as 71 k/s/Mpc

Ho is now "fixed" to local light speed, C by this simple Ho equation worked in the old algebra style of Maxwell:-

2 x oneMpc x C, divided by Pi to the power of 21 = 70.9449 k/s/Mpc

In this equation, directly input the values below:-

oneMPC is 3260000 light years

C (local) is 299792.458 k/s

Pi is 3.142..........

Astronomers measuring Ho give the "ballpark" values of Ho, and now we have an Ho equation that "fixes" Ho to
local light speed, C, which has to be much more precise.

Note:- In the numerator, distance (Mpc) is multiplied by speed (k/s), and that is NOT an error in this situation, as the "distance squared" does not affect the numerical value of the Ho redshift by
"spreading out" (as any light source does) when viewing that redshift for Ho along just
one dimension only.

The dimensionless denominator Pi^21 sets the scales of this Ho equation correctly into the Dynamic Aether framework.
The Dynamic Aether Framework is not the static aether that the Michleson-Morley experiment could not detect, but
the Dynamic Aether that Faraday knew caused electrical "reluctance", and that Maxwell used as the basis for his
electric and magnetic "inertia" constants, and used in his Aether equations to calculate light speed. C.

=============================================================================================
Hubble Constant (Ho) Hubble Horizon Distance light years calculated from Ho of 70.9449 k/s/Mpc.

oneMpc X C, divided by Ho, and then divided by one billion = 13.7758 billion light Years

In this equation, directly input the values below:-

oneMpc is 3260000 light years

C (local) is 299792.458 k/s

Ho is 70.9449 k/s/Mpc

one billion is 1,000,000,000 used to give the answer in convenient units of
billions of light years.

Note:- This Hubble Horizon Distance equation prevents falsifying the terminology of
declaring light years as years only.

Chesterton · Oct 26, 2025

BCP1928 said:
The retail stores do, but there are not very many as you see. The wholesale market is dominated by segments.

I live in a large city and Kroger and Delhaize have zero presence here. Kroger was here back in the '80's but they got out-competed by a family run chain so they shut down. I have an old friend who owns a local business which competes with Sysco. Anyway, being large or dominant is not being a monopoly.

Dikaioumenoi · Oct 26, 2025

1 John 5:1a reads:

πᾶς ὁ πιστεύων ὅτι Ἰησοῦς ἐστὶν ὁ Χριστός, ἐκ τοῦ θεοῦ γεγέννηται
("Everyone who believes that Jesus is the Christ has been born of God")

A few grammatical observations:

First, ὁ πιστεύων is a present active participle functioning substantively: "the one who is believing." The participle presents the subject, and describes a present, ongoing activity rather than a completed act of faith.

Second, γεγέννηται, the main verb of the clause, is a perfect passive indicative: "has been begotten" or "has been born [of God]." The perfect tense is more than just a "past" tense. Its aspectual function specifically points to a completed action in the past whose effects continue into the present.

When the two forms are set in relation to each other, especially with the present participle functioning substantively -- that is, as the subject of the main verb -- the natural sense is that the person who now believes does so as one who has already been born of God. The grammar, therefore, suggests a logical ordering in which the new birth precedes the act of believing.

This does not, of course, deny the simultaneous experience of these realities in human perception, but grammatically the text places regeneration as the root (the logical grounds) and believing as its fruit.

BCP1928 · Oct 26, 2025

Chesterton said:
Those companies are not even remotely related. They compete against each other.

The retail stores do, but there are not very many as you see. The wholesale market is dominated by segments.

Amo2 · Oct 26, 2025

The Liturgist said:
The Catholic Church never did that. As proof, we have the Challoner Douai Rheims and earlier vernacular translations.

Indeed the Vetus Latina and later the Vulgate were in their day vernacular translations, making the Greek and Hebraic texts accessible to the middle class and lower class speakers of the Western Roman Empire (in the Western Empire, only the wealthy could send their sons to a Rhaetor to learn Greek).

The Catholic church most certainly did do that according to the testimony of many. Not regarding holy scripture altogether, but regarding translations of holy scripture she did or would not approve of. Which were written with the exact intent of people being able to read the scriptures in their own languages. She and all other denominations have the right to forbid such for their own members, to be enforced by disfellowship at the most. Neither she nor any other professed Christian entity has ever had the right to forbid such for those outside of their churches, or the right to punish those even within them, beyond the limits of disfellowship. This is the abuse of authority our Lord has never given to His church. Which He Himself does not dare most obviously, to exercise over the consciences of humankind. As it is against His nature, most obviously, to do so.

Nor is it the right of any Christian to demand that all must learn a language they do not know, in order to have and read holy scripture. Especially during times when getting such an education was beyond the limits of so many. I say again, who has more responsibility to get God's word into the hands of the people in a language they can read and understand, than the professed followers of God Himself? No one.

BNR32FAN · Oct 26, 2025

Dan1988 said:
There's always been only one way to come to Christ. We are all born dead in sin, and we remain dead unless God quickens us to life and saves us.

I was dead in my sin when God saved me, you're suggesting that those who are dead in sin can activate their faith and force God to make them alive and save them. But there's nothing in the bible to support your silly theory.

The only thing dead men can do is stink, and all they can contribute to their salvation is filthy stinking rags.

In Romans 1:16 Paul said that the gospel is the power of God for salvation. The scriptures state several times that the word of God does in fact save us.

“For I am not ashamed of the gospel, for it is the power of God for salvation to everyone who believes, to the Jew first and also to the Greek.”
‭‭Romans‬ ‭1‬:‭16‬ ‭NASB1995‬‬

““Truly, truly, I say to you, he who hears My WORD, and believes Him who sent Me, has eternal life, and does not come into judgment, but has passed out of death into life.”
‭‭John‬ ‭5‬:‭24‬ ‭NASB1995‬‬

“In the exercise of His will He brought us forth by the WORD of truth, so that we would be a kind of first fruits among His creatures.”
‭‭James‬ ‭1‬:‭18‬ ‭NASB1995‬‬

“for you have been born again not of seed which is perishable but imperishable, that is, through the living and enduring WORD of God.”
‭‭1 Peter‬ ‭1‬:‭23‬ ‭NASB1995‬‬

The gospel has the power to elicit a response in those who hear it. So no, when people hear the gospel and receive it they’re not saving themselves at all, they’re actually being saved by the Word of God given to man by God Himself that Jesus commanded His apostles to preach to all nations which was to fulfill His promise that when He is lifted up He will draw all men to Himself in John 12:32. You seem to think that the word of God itself has no power at all.

Richard T · Oct 26, 2025

Quote from the article, " America’s debt has grown rapidly over the last decade as the population ages and enrollment in Social Security and Medicare rises."
Because Medicare and Social security still have a surplus, the debt does not rise at all, though the payments are rising.
The government always has taken money from the social security trust fund and gives the trust funds IOU's for the surplus. Currently the payments of social security are requiring more of those surplus IOU's to be cashed. So accounting wise, the IOU amount is reduced, while the borrowing from the public pays off the IOU's. This is merely substituting one debt for another and the debt amount stays the same.

Chesterton · Oct 26, 2025

BCP1928 said:
The retail monopoly in that case consists of Walmart, Costco, Kroger and Delhaize. The Wholesale side seems to be dominated by companies like Pepsico, Sysco and Nestle.

Those companies are not even remotely related. They compete against each other.

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