I have no idea of what you're trying to say here. Obviously, someone who currently believes has previously been born again. How does that prove that they were born again before they first believed? You have not addressed that as far as I've seen.
We have both agreed (it seems) that the order, born again --> currently believing, is scriptural. But your question implicitly assumes a different sequence:
First believed --> born again --> currently believing.
That assumption introduces a bifurcation (distinction) Scripture never makes: a distinction between
initial and
continuing faith. Your question is an argument from silence. It's not my burden to disprove the speculation that there is "first belief" prior to being born again. It's yours to substantiate it. The text of John simply speaks of believing as the mark of the regenerate, not as two discrete phases of faith. So I'm asking you to demonstrate this distinction exegetically: where does John differentiate between an "initial" and a "continuing" faith?
When someone is regenerated, they are made righteous because that involves the washing and regeneration of the Holy Spirit in a person's heart.
If regeneration makes one righteous, how does a person exercise saving faith prior to being made righteous? Is faith not itself a God-pleasing act? How then could one who is still "in the flesh" and "hostile" toward God perform it, given Rom. 8:7-8 and John 6:44?
Read my post #48 in this thread. I see that you too are taking
1 Corinthians 2:14 out of context.
You've chosen to respond only to one of the texts I cited. Would you algo engage with post
#35, where I address John 6:44?
Your reading of 1 Cor. 2:14 conflates two different passages (2:6-16 and 3:1ff) and, in doing so, collapses distinct categories under the guise of "context." In vv. 10-16, the contrast is between ψυχικὸς ἄνθρωπος ("natural man") and ὁ πνευματικὸς ("spiritual man"), not between "deep doctrine" and "simple gospel." The distinction is anthropological, not pedagogical. Two kinds of people
in nature, not two stages of maturity. The adjective ψυχικός consistently denotes one governed by natural faculties, devoid of the Spirit (cf. Jude 19, ψυχικοί, πνεῦμα μὴ ἔχοντες, "natural men, not having the Spirit"). This is not a category of "immature believers," but of
unregenerate people. By contrast, πνευματικὸς is one in whom the Spirit dwells (cf. Rom. 8:9).
The "babes in Christ" appear later as a separate category in a different discussion. Chapter 3 shifts topics to internal church divisions. Chapter 2:10-16, however, is an epistemological statement about spiritual perception. Verses 10-12 ground all true apprehension of divine wisdom (the gospel) in the Spirit's revelation. Verse 14 then states that the ψυχικὸς man,
devoid of the Spirit,
cannot receive that wisdom, while verse 15 affirms that the πνευματικὸς, the regenerate man, can discern it.
δέχομαι denotes
receptivity, not just comprehension. It means "to welcome" or "accept favorably," not merely "to grasp intellectually." The phrase οὐ δέχεται τὰ τοῦ πνεύματος τοῦ θεοῦ ("does not receive the things of the Spirit of God") means that natural man
refuses spiritual things, not just that he "struggles to understand" them. He rejects them as μωρία, "foolishness" (cf. 1 Cor. 1:18).
And Paul tells us
why: οὐ δύναται γνῶναι, ὅτι πνευματικῶς ἀνακρίνεται, "he
is not able to understand them, because they are spiritually discerned." οὐ δύναται denotes an ontological incapacity, not a temporary ignorance. The verb ἀνακρίνω means "to discern or evaluate rightly." Apart from the indwelling Spirit, man cannot rightly perceive or embrace spiritual truth, including the gospel itself. "Babes in Christ" have the Spirit. The natural man does not.
So 1 Cor. 2:14 is identical in principle to Rom. 8:7-8 and John 6:44. Can you address those texts as well? See post #35 for my comments on John 6:44.
Why would regeneration and sealing not happen at the same time? How could we be regenerated by the Holy Spirit without also being sealed by the Holy Spirit?
Again, you are assuming what needs to be demonstrated. It is not my burden to disprove that "born again" and "sealing" are identical; it is yours to argue from the text.
Paul does not use σφραγίζω to describe regeneration. Regeneration is consistently marked by terms that denote the impartation of life or a new creation: ζωοποιέω ("make alive"), γεννάω ἐκ θεοῦ ("born of God"), and καινὴ κτίσις ("new creation") -- cf. John 3:3-8; Titus 3:5; 2 Cor. 5:17; 1 John 5:1. By contrast, σφραγίζω refers to authentication (cf. John 6:27), ownership, and the guarantee of what God has accomplished. It's a mark of assurance (2 Cor. 1:22; Eph. 4:30). It is never used to denote the impartation of new life. In Romans 4:11, the noun form is used covenantally to refer to a
confirming seal (a stamp) of righteousness that already exists, not the
means by which righteousness is imparted.
I also never denied that regeneration and sealing can occur simultaneously in time. They very well may, at least from our perspective. You are conflating logical and chronological order. The argument in 1 John 5:1 is about
logical precedence, not necessarily temporal sequence. Two actions may coincide from a human perspective, yet remain distinct in nature and function. Regeneration is the impartation of spiritual life; sealing is the Spirit's mark of authentication and assurance. One is an ontological act; the other is an attestation. Regeneration --> faith --> sealing, can all occur within the same temporal window. That does not make regeneration and sealing identical, nor does it have any bearing on the
logical precedence of regeneration --> faith.