I agree πίστις comes from God after regeneration, but regeneration must be accepted by man...
You grant that πίστις follows regeneration, yet insist regeneration follows "accepting" it. That is a circular impossibility. Scripture presents regeneration not as an offer to be received, but as an
act of divine recreation that
enables reception (John 1:13; 3:3-8; Titus 3:5). Where in Scripture do you see regeneration ever depicted as something God proposes for man to "accept"?
Fallen man is not neutral toward God; he is hostile (Rom. 8:7), unable to submit to His law, and unable to please Him (v. 8). If the "acceptance" of regeneration is a pleasing act to God, how can one perform it while still in a state of hostility and inability? The very act you propose as preceding regeneration requires the spiritual life that regeneration alone imparts. This is not a question of mere intellectual capacity to assent to propositions, but of moral and spiritual disposition. The fallen heart is irreversibly biased against the things of God and therefore
not able to receive them (Rom. 8:7-8; John 6:44) until divine renewal takes place.
...with accepting God’s Love (Charity) in the form of forgiveness.
The love of God is received after the Spirit sheds it in the heart (Rom. 5:5), which occurs post-regeneration. One cannot "accept" divine love while remaining unregenerate and hostile to its Giver.
This “Kind of believe” you talk about can be directed toward your creator in the acceptance of charity from your hated enemy (God) and prior to obtaining πίστις.
Can you argue this from Scripture?
Everything hinges on the definition of “Spiritually dead” and if the person that is spiritually dead can do something for himself (selfishly). We know the “spiritual dead” person can still physically feed himself, so what else can he do for himself?
You're equivocating on the term "spiritually dead." The fact that an unregenerate person can eat, walk, or speak has no bearing on his ability to turn to God. Scripture nowhere denies natural functionality; it denies spiritual receptivity.
Spiritual death (νεκροὺς, Eph. 2:1, 5; Col. 2:13) refers to total
moral and spiritual incapacity toward God (Eph. 2:1-3; Rom. 8:7-8; John 6:44, 65). The "dead" man is still alive biologically, yet he is
alienated from the life of God (Eph. 4:18) and dominated by corrupt desires (Gen. 6:5; Rom. 3:10-12).
Scripture does not depict man as merely wounded or partially disabled, but as utterly unable to incline himself Godward apart from divine initiative. Physical capacity does not mitigate spiritual inability; it only underscores the irony that one may be fully active in the world and yet lifeless toward God.
How do you get around Jesus explaining to us that a person spiritually dead like the prodigal son can turn to the Father?
One needn't "get around" it if it is read according to its intended teaching. The parable is not a treatise on regeneration or the mechanics of conversion; it's a didactic story illustrating God's gracious forgiveness toward repentant sinners within the covenant people. The father embodies God's readiness to forgive, and the son's return illustrates repentance and receptivity that flow from the father's prior gracious disposition. Jesus' audience (the Pharisees) are the implied contrast, highlighting their inability to rejoice in God's grace. The parable assumes divine initiative in drawing the son home; it does not portray the unregenerate sinner as capable of effecting his own turning apart from God.
The phrase νεκρὸς ἦν καὶ ἀνέζησεν ("was dead and is alive again," Luke 15:24) is metaphorical, not ontological. It communicates relational estrangement and restoration within Israel's covenant framework, not a technical statement about the sinner's capacity for self-generated faith. The "dead/alive" language narratively conveys the joy of reconciliation and the father's gracious response, not an
ordo salutis.
...but selfishly (sinfully) wanting to humbly accept pure underserved charity.
Even if that were true in the parable, it proves nothing about spiritual ability. Christ's purpose is to depict the
Father's mercy, not the
son's psychology. The son's "selfish" motive is incidental; the parable centers on the father's initiative. He first acts, restores, and rejoices.
More importantly, fallen self-interest cannot serve as the ground for receiving divine grace. Scripture consistently grounds regeneration and justification in God's sovereign action, not in any natural human impulse (Titus 3:5; John 6:44). The prodigal's confession, "I have sinned," reflects conviction and repentance produced by God's work, not an innate capacity to turn to Him.
So your appeal to the parable collapses if used to justify pre-regenerative "self-acceptance" of God's love, because the son is already alive in the narrative act of returning. The "coming to himself" is the very moment of awakening that corresponds to regeneration (cf. Eph. 2:5, "made us alive").
You are right for I am not talking about “believe in Christ”, but “trusting” in God unbelievable illogical Love.
Where do you see Scripture distinguish a pre-regenerate trust in divine benevolence as a separate category from faith? The divine agape is revealed
in Christ crucified (Rom. 5:8; 1 John 4:9-10). To speak of "trusting God's love" apart from union with Christ is to separate what Scripture unites, and posit an objectless faith. Even intellectually apprehending the claims of Christianity is not an act of trust but mere exposure to propositions, which, apart from regeneration, results only in indifference or hostility (2 Cor. 4:4; Rom. 8:7-8).
Are you suggesting that natural man possesses spiritual perception and volition toward God, not merely abstract awareness or assent? Those very capacities are precisely what regeneration imparts (cf. 1 Cor. 2:14).