If this is true, then you proved yourself wrong because your OP's contention is that the grammar dictates the chronology you like (i.e., that faith comes after the second birth), but now you say chronology is not indicated.
No, the OP does not make any contention about temporal sequence. In fact, I specifically said in the OP that "this does not ... deny the simultaneous experience of these realities in human perception." The key point is that John's grammar expresses
logical priority.
But even if you are right that the participle should be considered as present tense, there is nothing in the verse to indicate that believing (in the present) did not start in the past. So, since I believe right now, I am born again. But I believed yesterday also. And the day before. And last year. And a decade ago. According to 1 John 5:1a, when did I start believing and when was I born again? If you are right, it doesn't address that at all.
Correct, "when" is not the issue. John's point expresses a logical relationship, not a chronological sequence. The argument is not that believing "did not start in the past." The argument is that believing -- whenever it begins -- presupposes being born again as its logical cause. The one characterized as "the believing one" is so
because he "has been born of God." That's what the grammar of the text is conveying.
How do your principles of grammar rearrange the sequence of events to place believing after salvation in the following passages:
- In Him you also trusted, after you heard the word of truth, the gospel of your salvation; in whom also, having believed, you were sealed with the Holy Spirit of promise (Eph 1:13),
- 13 For “whoever calls on the name of the LORD shall be saved.” 14 How then shall they call on Him in whom they have not believed? And how shall they believe in Him of whom they have not heard? And how shall they hear without a preacher? 15 And how shall they preach unless they are sent? (Ro 10:13–15), and
- For since, in the wisdom of God, the world through wisdom did not know God, it pleased God through the foolishness of the message preached to save those who believe. (1 Co 1:21)
Where have I argued for "believing after salvation"?
Your examples reflect a misunderstanding of the argument in the OP. Each of these verses uses
aorists to describe events in experience or outward sequence, not gnomic statements employing a perfect passive indicative. The
semantic core of the perfect tense in Greek denotes a completed past action
with abiding results (think γέγραπται, "it is written..." -- literally, "has been written," emphasizing that the writing being quoted was completed in the past but continues to exist and remain relevant). This is distinct from a simple aorist, which typically
narrates completed events without necessarily highlighting their effects.
Eph. 1:13 narrates the act of believing as completed by the time of sealing. This does not imply that the believer generated that ability independently. This text is fully consistent with the logical priority of sealing presupposing God enabling belief.
Rom. 10:13-15 addresses the outward hearing and calling of the gospel, not the internal, sovereign work of God producing faith. Again, fully consistent with the principle that those who believe do so because God has worked in them.
1 Cor. 1:21 emphasizes the effectiveness of God's wisdom in salvation. Belief is the channel through which salvation is
experienced, yet this is still consistent with belief presupposing God's
logically prior enabling work.
Nothing in these passages denies that regeneration underlies the believer's ability to respond. The logic of 1 John 5:1 (among other text we could go to as well) remains: faith does not originate independently but is God-given and effectual.