F
Florida College
Guest
Malaka,
Aggie03 has clearly addressed the differences between the baptism of John and the baptism that puts one into Christ. Baptism into Christ is necessary for salvation. Mk. 16:16 should be easily understood: the sentence structure is not complicated nor the meaning hard to discern.
I would like to just briefly clarily a comment about Matt. 3:5-6. Your points were:
Matthew, chapter 3 tells us that John preached repentance and baptized "unto repentance" (v 11). But, verse 5 and 6, it states,
"Then Jerusalem, all Judea, and all the region around the Jordan went out to him and were baptized by him in the Jordan, confessing their sins"
That word "all" tells me that that "all" of the Jews in Jerusalem and Judean and the region around Jordan went to be baptized.
My comments: Does the word "all" really mean every single person? I don't think it applied to every single Jew that was in those areas. Carefully consider the Jews reaction in Luke 29-30 to Jesus' teaching in Capernaum. I offer this point only as a point to think about. I don't feel that I can say with certainty that the thief on the cross was baptized with the baptism of John - - that is, whether he was, or whether he wasn't. Since the baptism of John and the baptism of Christ are totally different actions, I choose to reason from the angle of when the Old Testament Law ended and the New Testament era started.
Ultimately, whatever one decides about the thief on the cross - - whether he as baptized or not - - must be harmonized with all other scriptures. That is what I am listening for - - I've yet to hear anyone harmonize salvation by "faith only" with Acts 2:38;22:16, or I Peter 3:20-21 (just to mention a few scriptures).
FC
Aggie03 has clearly addressed the differences between the baptism of John and the baptism that puts one into Christ. Baptism into Christ is necessary for salvation. Mk. 16:16 should be easily understood: the sentence structure is not complicated nor the meaning hard to discern.
I would like to just briefly clarily a comment about Matt. 3:5-6. Your points were:
Matthew, chapter 3 tells us that John preached repentance and baptized "unto repentance" (v 11). But, verse 5 and 6, it states,
"Then Jerusalem, all Judea, and all the region around the Jordan went out to him and were baptized by him in the Jordan, confessing their sins"
That word "all" tells me that that "all" of the Jews in Jerusalem and Judean and the region around Jordan went to be baptized.
My comments: Does the word "all" really mean every single person? I don't think it applied to every single Jew that was in those areas. Carefully consider the Jews reaction in Luke 29-30 to Jesus' teaching in Capernaum. I offer this point only as a point to think about. I don't feel that I can say with certainty that the thief on the cross was baptized with the baptism of John - - that is, whether he was, or whether he wasn't. Since the baptism of John and the baptism of Christ are totally different actions, I choose to reason from the angle of when the Old Testament Law ended and the New Testament era started.
Ultimately, whatever one decides about the thief on the cross - - whether he as baptized or not - - must be harmonized with all other scriptures. That is what I am listening for - - I've yet to hear anyone harmonize salvation by "faith only" with Acts 2:38;22:16, or I Peter 3:20-21 (just to mention a few scriptures).
FC
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