Well, to provide an example: God ordained that Rehoboam would not listen to the people in his sinful pride so that he could tear the kingdom away from him (1 Kings 12:15).
Or like God ordaining the selling of Joseph into slavery (Genesis 50:20, Psalm 105:17).
Or like God ordaining that Samson sinfully desired to marry a Philistine (Judges 14:4).
I assume you've read the Bible before on this subject. If this is not God ordaining sin then what is it?
On I Kings 12:15, from the Pulpit Commentaries:
"Verse 15. - Wherefore the king hearkened not unto the people, for the cause [or course of events; lit., turn] was from the Lord ["Quem Deus vult perdere, prius dementat."
God did not inspire Rehoboam's proud and despotic reply, but used it for the accomplishment of His purpose, the partition of the kingdom (cf.
Exodus 14:4;
Matthew 26:24). God makes the wrath of man to praise Him], that [Heb. in order that] he might perform his saying, which the Lord spake by [Heb. in the hand of; cf.
1 Kings 14:18;
1 Kings 2:25, note] Ahijah the Shilonite [see on 1 Kings 11:11] unto Jeroboam the son of Nebat.
Many times Scripture will mention something that fulfills a prophecy of God. This does not prove that God author's evil or ordains man to sin, but that His plan incorporates the evil of man, when needed, to fulfill prophecy or lead to specific events.
Gen 50:20 is in this same vein. The actions and thoughts of Joseph's brothers were evil, but God used it for good, to bring about the settling of the Israelite's in Egypt for a time (and hence later their Exodus, which was to typify our rescue in Christ from slavery to sin.) Does this mean that God caused their thoughts or actions? No! But it does show that God incorporated their actions into His plan with an alternate perspective and intention - to bring good, not evil.
"God did send me before you to preserve life." Gen 45:20
As Barne's notes on the Bible put it: "People are free in their wickedness; but God is equally free in frustrating their schemes, and overruling their designs for the accomplishment of his own purposes."
"Psa 105:16-19
He called down famine on the land and destroyed all their supplies of food;
and he sent a man before them—Joseph, sold as a slave. They bruised his feet with shackles, his neck was put in irons, till what he foretold came to pass, till the word of the Lord proved him true."
God, in this passage, was responsible for calling down famine on the land, destroying food, sending Jospeh, and proving Joseph true. 'Sold as a slave' is narrative - God did not sell Joseph, though He intended the sale the brother's did for His own purposes. God also did not bruise Joseph's feet, put Him in irons, or otherwise make people harm Joseph.
Judges 14:4 does not say that God planted sinful desires in Samson's heart. (We know that God tempts no one, James 1:13) It does interestingly describe that God was "Seeking occasion" against the Philistines, and hence the pleas of the parents could not persuade their son against his plan.
A passage I have always found interesting, as relates to this topic, is Jer 19:4-6, particularly Jer 19:5:
"...and have built the high places of Baal to burn their sons in the fire as burnt offerings to Baal,
a thing which I never commanded or spoke of, nor did it ever enter My mind;..."
The Hebrew there is specific that it never entered God's mind (leb - inner man, feelings, will, or intellect) for them to do such a thing.