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There is no command NT or OT that gentiles be circumcised in order to be saved..
That is an Acts 15:1-5 heresy to claim otherwise and the Apostles refuted it.
And in Acts 16:1-6 we see Timothy agrees to be circumcised.
But that does not mean gentiles could not be saved in the NT without being circumcised.
Just as the side detail that "some gentiles" in the OT were circumcised does not mean that "gentiles could not be saved in the NT without being circumcised"
failing to actual quote the text of Acts 15:1 ... so we can all see just how related it is to the idea that "gentiles must be circumcised to be saved" as "if" that were OT or NT doctrine... we find this.
Acts 15:1
Some men came down from Judea and began teaching the brethren, “Unless you are circumcised according to the custom of Moses, you cannot be saved.”
That would be heresy -- NT or OT.. you seem to think it is pretty good bible doctrine for gentiles possibly in the OT
Because Acts 15:1 speaks specifically to heresy of their day and brings out a point you have now insisted upon for gentiles in ... (not sure when??? the OT??)
Acts 15:1
Some men came down from Judea and began teaching the brethren, “Unless you are circumcised according to the custom of Moses, you cannot be saved.”
Whereas I insist that heresy as stated in Acts 15:1 was always heresy and as Gal 1:6-9 states "There is only ONE Gospel" and Gal 3:8 "that Gospel was preached to Abraham" and it is NOT the gospel that "all gentiles have to be circumcised to be saved"
That is an Acts 15:1-5 heresy to claim otherwise and the Apostles refuted it.
Gentiles were circumcised in the O.T .
And in Acts 16:1-6 we see Timothy agrees to be circumcised.
But that does not mean gentiles could not be saved in the NT without being circumcised.
Just as the side detail that "some gentiles" in the OT were circumcised does not mean that "gentiles could not be saved in the NT without being circumcised"
On the unrelated topic of Acts 15. The debate concerned whether the Gentiles needed to be subject to the law which included circumcision.
failing to actual quote the text of Acts 15:1 ... so we can all see just how related it is to the idea that "gentiles must be circumcised to be saved" as "if" that were OT or NT doctrine... we find this.
Acts 15:1
Some men came down from Judea and began teaching the brethren, “Unless you are circumcised according to the custom of Moses, you cannot be saved.”
That would be heresy -- NT or OT.. you seem to think it is pretty good bible doctrine for gentiles possibly in the OT
Why do you ignore this verse?
Acts 15:5
But some of the sect of the Pharisees who had believed stood up, saying, “It is necessary to circumcise them and to direct them to observe the Law of Moses.”
Because Acts 15:1 speaks specifically to heresy of their day and brings out a point you have now insisted upon for gentiles in ... (not sure when??? the OT??)
Acts 15:1
Some men came down from Judea and began teaching the brethren, “Unless you are circumcised according to the custom of Moses, you cannot be saved.”
Whereas I insist that heresy as stated in Acts 15:1 was always heresy and as Gal 1:6-9 states "There is only ONE Gospel" and Gal 3:8 "that Gospel was preached to Abraham" and it is NOT the gospel that "all gentiles have to be circumcised to be saved"
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