The Issue of Universalism and Possible Ultimate Release from Hell

Der Alte

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FineLinen said:
The word in Romans 11:36 clearly defines the scope of Yah's recovery program for the entire universe!
“For of him and through him, and to him are all things.”
koine = ta panta = the whole enchilada.
Source, Guide, Goal of the ALL
Anyone can make the Bible support almost anything by quoting selective vss. out-of-context.

Romans 11:21-23
(21) For if God spared not the natural branches, take heed lest he also spare not thee.
(22) Behold therefore the goodness and severity of God: on them which fell, severity; but toward thee, goodness, if thou continue in his goodness: otherwise thou also shalt be cut off.
(23) And they also, if they abide not still in unbelief, shall be graffed in: for God is able to graff them in again.
Paul has included a condition for both Jews [vs. 23] and gentiles [vs. 22] to be saved. They cannot remain in unbelief.
 
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Der Alte: "In this vs. (11:32) the Greek word ἐλεήσῃ/elee'se. which is translated "might have mercy" is in the "aorist active subjunctive" mood which is the mood of possibility and potentiality."

Paul shifts from "possibility to actuality in 2 ways:

(1) 11:36 predicts the actual fulfillment of the divine purpose to "show mercy on all" in 11:32.
(2) In 11:32 God takes responsibility for "imprisoning" us in "disbedience and by implication for then finding the means to "show mercy" through His grace.

Der Alte: "Paul added a condition for the salvation of the Jews. Romans 11:22-23"

Your comment is irrelevant to 11:25-26 which prophesies that "ALL Israel shall be saved" and thus implies that all Israe will meet God's conditions.


 
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Der Alte

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Der Alte: "In this vs. (11:32) the Greek word ἐλεήσῃ/elee'se. which is translated "might have mercy" is in the "aorist active subjunctive" mood which is the mood of possibility and potentiality."
Paul shifts from "possibility to actuality in 2 ways:
(1) 11:36 predicts the actual fulfillment of the divine purpose to "show mercy on all" in 11:32.
(2) In 11:32 God takes responsibility for "imprisoning" us in "disbedience and by implication for then finding the means to "show mercy" through His grace.
Der Alte: "Paul added a condition for the salvation of the Jews. Romans 11:22-23"
Your comment is irrelevant to 11:25-26 which prophesies that "ALL Israel shall be saved" and thus implies that all Israe will meet God's conditions.
Your assumption that "all Israel" will be saved, without exception, is misinformed. Paul would not have mentioned a condition if He knew for a fact that all Israel would be saved. It has been 2000 years and it hasn't happened yet. How generations of Jews have died, in their sins, without accepting their Messiah, Jesus?

1)Ecclesiastes 9:5 For the living know that they shall die: but the dead know not anything neither have they any more a reward: for the memory of them is forgotten.

2)
Isaiah 26:14 They are dead, they shall not live: they are deceased, they shall not rise: therefore hast thou visited and destroyed them and made all their memory to Perish.

3)
Psalms 6:5 For in death there is no remembrance of thee: in the grave who shall give thee thanks?

4)
Psalms 88:10 Wilt thou shew wonders to the dead? shall the dead rise and praise thee? Selah.

5)
Psalms 88:11 Shall thy loving kindness be declared in the grave? thy faithfulness in destruction?

6)
Ecclesiastes 9:10 Whatsoever thy hand findeth to do, do it with thy might for there is no work, nor device, nor knowledge, nor wisdom, in the grave, whither thou goest.

7) John 9:4 I must work the works of him that sent me. while it is day: the night cometh, when no man can work.

8) Psalms 30:9
What profit is there in my blood, when I go down to the pit? Shall the dust praise thee? shall it declare thy truth?

9) Psalms 115:17
17 The dead praise not the LORD, neither any that go down into silence.

10) Psalms 88:5
5 Free among the dead, like the slain that lie in the grave, whom thou rememberest no more: and they are cut off from thy hand.

11) Proverbs 11:7
7 When a wicked man dieth, his expectation shall perish: and the hope of unjust men perisheth.

12) Proverbs 24:20 for the evildoer has no future hope and the lamp or the wicked will be snuffed out.

13) Isaiah 38:18 For the grave cannot praise thee, death can not celebrate thee:they that go down into the pit cannot hope for thy truth.

14) Hebrews 9:27
27 And as it is appointed unto men once to die, but after this the judgment
 
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UNIVERSALISM IN THE PHILIPPIAN HYMN (Phil. 2:6-11)
The case for universalism in Phil. 2:9-11 is as strong as the case in Rom. 11:25-26, 32, 26:

"Therefore, God has highly exalted Him (Christ) and given Him a name which is above every other name, that at the name of Jesus EVERY KNEE should bow, in heaven and on Earth and UNDER THE EARTH (in Hades), and EVERY TONGUE confess that Jesus Christ is Lord to the glory of God the Father (2:9-11)."

4 reasons support the claim that the Philippian hymn envisages universal salvation:
(1) This hymn anticipates a time when every human in the universe will bow and confess Jesus as their Lord. The expression "under the Earth" refers to Hades (so Josephus, Antiquities 18:14).
(2) The sincere confession "Jesus Christ is Lord" is inspired by the Holy Spirit and makes one a Christian:
"No one can say, "Jesus is Lord," apart from the Holy Spirit (1 Cor. 12:3)."
(3) This hymn is paralleled by the universal worship of Jesus pictured in Rev. 5:13, where it serves as part of the case for universalism in Revelation.
(4) The Philippian hymn is inspired by Isaiah 45:22-23, which begins with an invitation to universal salvation:
"Turn to me and be saved, all the ends of the Earth (45:22)."
It then continues with a prophecy of universal compliance: "To me every knee shall bow and every tongue shall swear (45:23)."
 
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Der Alte

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Der Alte: "In this vs. (11:32) the Greek word ἐλεήσῃ/elee'se. which is translated "might have mercy" is in the "aorist active subjunctive" mood which is the mood of possibility and potentiality."
Paul shifts from "possibility to actuality in 2 ways:
(1) 11:36 predicts the actual fulfillment of the divine purpose to "show mercy on all" in 11:32.
(2) In 11:32 God takes responsibility for "imprisoning" us in "disbedience and by implication for then finding the means to "show mercy" through His grace.
Der Alte: "Paul added a condition for the salvation of the Jews. Romans 11:22-23"
Your comment is irrelevant to 11:25-26 which prophesies that "ALL Israel shall be saved" and thus implies that all Israe will meet God's conditions.
Still reading it wrong.
Romans 11:31-32
(31) Even so have these also now not believed, that through your mercy they also may obtain mercy.
(32) For God hath concluded them all in unbelief, that he might have mercy upon all.
"May have mercy" vs. 31 subjunctive mood, NOT a done deal!
"Might have mercy" vs. 32 subjunctive mood, NOT a done deal.
 
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Der Alte

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UNIVERSALISM IN THE PHILIPPIAN HYMN (Phil. 2:6-11)
The case for universalism in Phil. 2:9-11 is as strong as the case in Rom. 11:25-26, 32, 26:
"Therefore, God has highly exalted Him (Christ) and given Him a name which is above every other name, that at the name of Jesus EVERY KNEE should bow, in heaven and on Earth and UNDER THE EARTH (in Hades), and EVERY TONGUE confess that Jesus Christ is Lord to the glory of God the Father (2:9-11)."
4 reasons support the claim that the Philippian hymn envisages universal salvation:
(1) This hymn anticipates a time when every human in the universe will bow and confess Jesus as their Lord. The expression "under the Earth" refers to Hades (so Josephus, Antiquities 18:14).
(2) The sincere confession "Jesus Christ is Lord" is inspired by the Holy Spirit and makes one a Christian:
"No one can say, "Jesus is Lord," apart from the Holy Spirit (1 Cor. 12:3)."
(3) This hymn is paralleled by the universal worship of Jesus pictured in Rev. 5:13, where it serves as part of the case for universalism in Revelation.
(4) The Philippian hymn is inspired by Isaiah 45:22-23, which begins with an invitation to universal salvation:
"Turn to me and be saved, all the ends of the Earth (45:22)."
It then continues with a prophecy of universal compliance: "To me every knee shall bow and every tongue shall swear (45:23)."
This seems to be correct but wait a minute. Here is what Paul, the same writer, said in 1 Cor 6:9-10, Galatians 5:19-21, Ephesians 5:5 and 1 Corinthians 3:17
1 Corinthians 6:9-10
9 Know ye not that the unrighteous shall not inherit the kingdom of God? Be not deceived: [no wrongdoer] neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor effeminate, nor abusers of themselves with mankind,
10 Nor thieves, nor covetous, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor extortioners, shall inherit the kingdom of God.
Galatians 5:19-21
19 Now the works of the flesh are manifest, which are these; Adultery, fornication, uncleanness, lasciviousness,
20 Idolatry, witchcraft, hatred, variance, emulations, wrath, strife, seditions, heresies,
21 Envyings, murders, drunkenness, revellings, and such like: of the which I tell you before, as I have also told you in time past, that they which do such things shall not inherit the kingdom of God.
Ephesians 5:5 For this ye know, that no whoremonger, nor unclean person, nor covetous man, who is an idolater, [no wrongdoer] hath any inheritance in the kingdom of Christ and of God.
1 Corinthians 3:17 If any man defile the temple of God, him shall God destroy; for the temple of God is holy, which temple ye are.
Twenty two categories of unrighteous people who have no inheritance in the kingdom of God.1. adulterers, 2. covetous, 3. drunkenness, 4. effeminate, 5. emulations, 6. envious, 7. extortion 8. fornication, 9. hatred, 10. heresies, 11. homosexuals, 12. idolators, 13. lasciviousness, 14. murder, 15. reveling, 16. revilers 17. sedition, 18. strife, 19. thieves, 20. uncleanness 21. witchcraft. 22. Wrath
Vss cited: 1 Corinthians 6:9-10, Galatians 5:19-21, Ephesians 5:5, 1 Corinthians 3:17
 
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UNIVERSALISM IN THE PHILIPPIAN HYMN (Phil. 2:6-11)
The case for universalism in Phil. 2:9-11 is as strong as the case in Rom. 11:25-26, 32, 26:

"Therefore, God has highly exalted Him (Christ) and given Him a name which is above every other name, that at the name of Jesus EVERY KNEE should bow, in heaven and on Earth and UNDER THE EARTH (in Hades), and EVERY TONGUE confess that Jesus Christ is Lord to the glory of God the Father (2:9-11)."

4 reasons support the claim that the Philippian hymn envisages universal salvation:
(1) This hymn anticipates a time when every human in the universe will bow and confess Jesus as their Lord. The expression "under the Earth" refers to Hades (so Josephus, Antiquities 18:14).
(2) The sincere confession "Jesus Christ is Lord" is inspired by the Holy Spirit and makes one a Christian:
"No one can say, "Jesus is Lord," apart from the Holy Spirit (1 Cor. 12:3)."
(3) This hymn is paralleled by the universal worship of Jesus pictured in Rev. 5:13, where it serves as part of the case for universalism in Revelation.
(4) The Philippian hymn is inspired by Isaiah 45:22-23, which begins with an invitation to universal salvation:
"Turn to me and be saved, all the ends of the Earth (45:22)."
It then continues with a prophecy of universal compliance: "To me every knee shall bow and every tongue shall swear (45:23)."
If Paul understood the hymn to include a universalist message, why just a few short paragraphs later does he speak of people whose end is destruction? Did he forget he had just supported universalism?
 
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If Paul understood the hymn to include a universalist message, why just a few short paragraphs later does he speak of people whose end is destruction? Did he forget he had just supported universalism?

No, because, as I have demonstrated for Revelation, postmortem salvation of the damned begins AFTER consignment to the "destruction" of torment in Hell. It continues to fascinate me that evangelicals here flee to alleged exclusivist texts to avoid the hard work of actually exegeting the universalist texts discussed.
 
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No, because, as I have demonstrated for Revelation, postmortem salvation of the damned begins AFTER consignment to the "destruction" of torment in Hell. It continues to fascinate me that evangelicals here flee to alleged exclusivist texts to avoid the hard work of actually exegeting the universalist texts discussed.
Did you miss where it says "and anyone who's name was not found in the book of life was thrown into the lake of fire"?
 
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Did you miss where it says "and anyone who's name was not found in the book of life was thrown into the lake of fire"?

Nope! You must actually read the relevant post (#18) on universalism in Revelation before you criticize it. If you had, you'd realize that universalism is a result of the "2nd resurrection" out of "the lake of fire" through the eternally open "gates" into the heavenly Jerusalem.
 
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Der Alte

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Nope! You must actually read the relevant post (#18) on universalism in Revelation before you criticize it. If you had, you'd realize that universalism is a result of the "2nd resurrection" out of "the lake of fire" through the eternally open "gates" into the heavenly Jerusalem.
Have you ever read the end of the book?
Revelation 22:6
(6) And he said unto me, These sayings are faithful and true: and the Lord God of the holy prophets sent his angel to shew unto his servants the things which must shortly be done.
Revelation 22:10-11
(10) And he saith unto me, Seal not the sayings of the prophecy of this book: for the time is at hand.
(11) He that is unjust, let him be unjust still: and he which is filthy, let him be filthy still: and he that is righteous, let him be righteous still: and he that is holy, let him be holy still.
The last chapter, vs. 11, ten more vss. no more, death, no more salvation only "He that is unjust, let him be unjust still: and he which is filthy, let him be filthy still."
 
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Have you ever read the end of the book?
Revelation 22:6
(6) And he said unto me, These sayings are faithful and true: and the Lord God of the holy prophets sent his angel to shew unto his servants the things which must shortly be done.
Revelation 22:10-11
(10) And he saith unto me, Seal not the sayings of the prophecy of this book: for the time is at hand.
(11) He that is unjust, let him be unjust still: and he which is filthy, let him be filthy still: and he that is righteous, let him be righteous still: and he that is holy, let him be holy still.
The last chapter, vs. 11, ten more vss. no more, death, no more salvation only "He that is unjust, let him be unjust still: and he which is filthy, let him be filthy still."

Already refuted! I repeat: that just means the wicked will TEMPORARILY punished.
 
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Der Alte

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Already refuted! I repeat: that just means the wicked will TEMPORARILY punished.
Nonsense! So, you just make up stuff as you go along, doesn't matter what the Bible says? As I said vs. 11 ten more verses the end, no more death, no more salvation, the end!
 
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BNR32FAN

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Der Alte: " How did you determine that "olam" means "for a long time" and "aionios" means "age long? You apparently did not avail yourself of any Hebrew or Greek lexicons. I have both the BDB Hebrew lexicon and the BDAG Greek lexicon."

I also own both. Your claims can be refuted on at least 4 grounds:

(1) If you had actually looked up "olam" in your BDB Hebrew lexicon, you would have seen the primary meaning given "olam:"long duration, antiquity, futurity." Indeed, you would have noticed the OT examples where "olam" has the finite meaning of "forever, during the lifetime" "slave forever" "serve forever" "forever pregnant" and "always at ease."

(2) The Greek Septuagint often translates "olam" by "aionios"--proof that "aionios" need not mean "eternal" in our modern sense of the term.

(3) "Aionios" is a cognate of the noun "aion" which means "age, "not "eternal." So "aionios" might be translated "age-long." I read a Jewish pseudepigraphic text referring to a dead Isaac's "eternal ("aionios") sleep" and then talked about his expected resurrection from the dead.

(4) TDNT, vol. I, pp. 208-209 documents the following finite extension of "aionios:" "In later [Greek] poetry and prose "aionios" is also used in the sense of "lifelong" or "enduring."
Paul adopts this usage in Philemon 15: "...you might have him (the runaway slave Onesimus) back forever ("aionios"), no longer as a slave...(Philemon 15)."
"The concept of eternity is weakened in Rom. 16:25; 2 Tim. 1:9)"
"the mystery that was kept secret for long ages ("aionioi")"
"this grace was given to us in Christ Jesus before eternal (plural of "aionios") times"

That said, I realize that "aionios" is often best translated "forever." but not necessarily in the modern English sense of that word. The exceptions open the door to universalism. Remember, I'm playing Devil's Advocate.

I agree with what you’ve said here but there are often indications in the scriptures that reveal the intended meaning. Like for example

““Truly I say to you, all sins shall be forgiven the sons of men, and whatever blasphemies they utter; but whoever blasphemes against the Holy Spirit never has forgiveness, but is guilty of an eternal sin”—”
‭‭Mark‬ ‭3:28-29‬ ‭NASB1995‬‬

Universalists will use the argument that you have used above to say that this is not an eternal sin and that this sin will eventually be forgiven. Even when compared to Matthew 12 they will still say that it won’t be forgiven in this age or the next but that it will eventually be forgiven.

““Therefore I say to you, any sin and blasphemy shall be forgiven people, but blasphemy against the Spirit shall not be forgiven. Whoever speaks a word against the Son of Man, it shall be forgiven him; but whoever speaks against the Holy Spirit, it shall not be forgiven him, either in this age or in the age to come.”
‭‭Matthew‬ ‭12:31-32‬ ‭NASB1995‬‬

But when you examine Luke 12:10 Jesus doesn’t use the words aionios or aion He simply says it will not be forgiven. So with this context in perspective we can conclude that the other passages are conveying the same message and that it is in fact an eternal sin that will never be forgiven. So it’s important that when we see words like this that we examine the surrounding context and any parallel passages to get a more comprehensive understanding of what’s actually being said.
 
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Nope! You must actually read the relevant post (#18) on universalism in Revelation before you criticize it. If you had, you'd realize that universalism is a result of the "2nd resurrection" out of "the lake of fire" through the eternally open "gates" into the heavenly Jerusalem.
I don't need to be familiar with something false to know it is false, just be familiar with the genuine. Your post immediately discredits itself by admitting there is no explicit mention of a 2nd resurrection, especially since your reasoning doesn't wash. You're just making stuff up and then using the text as a prop for what you've made up, rather than looking at what the text says and letting it create your doctrines.
 
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Der Alte

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I agree with what you’ve said here but there are often indications in the scriptures that reveal the intended meaning. Like for example,
““Truly I say to you, all sins shall be forgiven the sons of men, and whatever blasphemies they utter; but whoever blasphemes against the Holy Spirit never has forgiveness, but is guilty of an eternal sin”—”
‭‭Mark‬ ‭3:28-29‬ ‭NASB1995‬‬
Universalists will use the argument that you have used above to say that this is not an eternal sin and that this sin will eventually be forgiven. Even when compared to Matthew 12 they will still say that it won’t be forgiven in this age or the next but that it will eventually be forgiven.
““Therefore I say to you, any sin and blasphemy shall be forgiven people, but blasphemy against the Spirit shall not be forgiven. Whoever speaks a word against the Son of Man, it shall be forgiven him; but whoever speaks against the Holy Spirit, it shall not be forgiven him, either in this age or in the age to come.”
‭‭Matthew‬ ‭12:31-32‬ ‭NASB1995‬‬
But when you examine Luke 12:10 Jesus doesn’t use the words aionios or aion He simply says it will not be forgiven. So with this context in perspective we can conclude that the other passages are conveying the same message and that it is in fact an eternal sin that will never be forgiven. So it’s important that when we see words like this that we examine the surrounding context and any parallel passages to get a more comprehensive understanding of what’s actually being said.
I agree. A little background. I am retired X3. I have loads of spare time. In that spare time, I reviewed every occurrence of olam in the OT and aionios in the NT and have found for both words they are defined/described as "eternal" in their respective testaments.
For example, "olam"

Ecclesiastes 3:14
(14) I know that, whatsoever God doeth, it shall be for ever:[Olam] nothing can be put to it, nor any thing taken from it: and God doeth it, that men should fear before him.
"Whatsoever God doeth, it shall be for ever:[Olam] nothing can be put to it, nor any thing taken from it:" defines "olam" as eternal. How do I explain occurrences which are not/cannot be eternal? Words are often used figuratively in the Bible. When Jesus called Herod a fox, he was not literally a fox. Figurative.
When Jesus named Simon, Petros, lit. stone, he was not actually a stone. Figurative. When Jesus called James and John, sons of thunder. They were not literally sons of thunder. Figurative.
Out of 24 vss. I have found which describe/define "aionios" my short list is 5 vss.
…..Some people claim that “αιων/aion//αιωνιος/aionios never mean eternity/eternal,” because a few times they refer to something which are not eternal e.g. “world.”
However, neither word is ever defined/described, by adjectives or descriptive phrases, as meaning a period less than eternal, as in the following NT verses.

John 3:15
(15) That whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have eternal [aionion] life.
John 3:16
(16) For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting [aionion] life.
In these two verses Jesus parallels “aionion life” with “should not perish,” twice. "Aionios," which is an adjective, cannot be translated "age," which is a noun. By definition “aionion life” means eternal or everlasting life.
John 10:28
(28) I give them eternal [aionios] life, and they shall never [aion] perish; no one will snatch them out of my hand.
In this verse Jesus parallels “aionios” and “aion” with “[not] snatch them out of my hand”, and “never perish.” “Aionios” is an adjective and cannot mean "age" which is a noun.“Aionios life” by definition here means “eternal life.”
…..Paul used the word “aionios” eighteen [18] times. It is correctly translated “eternal/everlasting” 16 times and world only 2 times. In the following verses Paul defines/describes “aionios” as eternal.

Romans 1:20
(20) For the invisible things of him from the creation of the world are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made, even his eternal [aidios] power and Godhead; so that they are without excuse:
Romans 16:26
(26) But now is made manifest, and by the scriptures of the prophets, according to the commandment of the everlasting [aionios] God, made known to all nations for the obedience of faith:
In Rom 1:20, above, Paul refers to God’s power and Godhead as “aidios.”
Scholars unanimously agree “aidios” means eternal, everlasting, for ever etc.
In Rom 16:26, Paul, the same writer, in the same writing, refers to God as “aionios.” Paul has used “aionios” synonymous with “aidios.” In this verse, by definition, “aionios” means eternal, everlasting etc.



 
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I agree. A little background. I am retired X3. I have loads of spare time. It that spare time, I reviewed every occurrence of olam in the OT and aionios in the NT and have found for both words they are defined/described as "eternal" in their respective testaments.
For example, "olam"

Ecclesiastes 3:14
(14) I know that, whatsoever God doeth, it shall be for ever:[Olam] nothing can be put to it, nor any thing taken from it: and God doeth it, that men should fear before him.
"Whatsoever God doeth, it shall be for ever:[Olam] nothing can be put to it, nor any thing taken from it:" defines "olam" as eternal. How do I explain occurrences which are not/cannot be eternal? Words are often used figuratively in the Bible. When Jesus called Herod a fox, he was not literally a fox. Figurative. When Jesus named Simon, Petros lit. stone, he was not actually a stone. Figurative. When Jesus called James and John, sons of thunder. They were not literally sons of thunder. Figurative.
Out of 24 vss. I have found which describe/define "aionios" my short list is 5 vss.
…..Some people claim that “αιων/aion//αιωνιος/aionios never mean eternity/eternal,” because a few times they refer to something which are not eternal e.g. “world.”
However, neither word is ever defined/described, by adjectives or descriptive phrases, as meaning a period less than eternal, as in the following NT verses.

John 3:15
(15) That whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have eternal [aionion] life.
John 3:16
(16) For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting [aionion] life.
In these two verses Jesus parallels “aionion life” with “should not perish,” twice. "Aionios," which is an adjective, cannot be translated "age," which is a noun. By definition “aionion life” means eternal or everlasting life.
John 10:28
(28) I give them eternal [aionios] life, and they shall never [aion] perish; no one will snatch them out of my hand.
In this verse Jesus parallels “aionios” and “aion” with “[not] snatch them out of my hand”, and “never perish.” “Aionios” is an adjective and cannot mean "age" which is a noun.“Aionios life” by definition here means “eternal life.”
…..Paul used the word “aionios” eighteen [18] times. It is correctly translated “eternal/everlasting” 16 times and world only 2 times. In the following verses Paul defines/describes “aionios” as eternal.

Romans 1:20
(20) For the invisible things of him from the creation of the world are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made, even his eternal [aidios] power and Godhead; so that they are without excuse:
Romans 16:26
(26) But now is made manifest, and by the scriptures of the prophets, according to the commandment of the everlasting [aionios] God, made known to all nations for the obedience of faith:
In Rom 1:20, above, Paul refers to God’s power and Godhead as “aidios.”
Scholars unanimously agree “aidios” means eternal, everlasting, for ever etc.
In Rom 16:26, Paul, the same writer, in the same writing, refers to God as “aionios.” Paul has used “aionios” synonymous with “aidios.” In this verse, by definition, “aionios” means eternal, everlasting etc.



Yeah I agree that these words can often be used metaphorically in the scriptures like we might say to day “that pork chop took forever to cook” or “my wife takes forever getting ready to go somewhere”. It doesn’t change the actual definition of the word it just means that it wasn’t intended to be taken literally.

On another note I do enjoy reading your posts they’re always very informative and knowledgeable.
 
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Der Alte

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Yeah I agree that these words can often be used metaphorically in the scriptures like we might say to day “that pork chop took forever to cook” or “my wife takes forever getting ready to go somewhere”. It doesn’t change the actual definition of the word it just means that it wasn’t intended to be taken literally.
On another note I do enjoy reading your posts they’re always very informative and knowledgeable.
Thank you. I have been right here trying to get that across to the UR group since Reagan or G.H.W. Bush was president.
 
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David's Harp

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Thank you. I have been right here trying to get that across to the UR group since Reagan or G.H.W. Bush was president.
Yes, let me second BNR32FAN in saying you do a good work in staunchly defending God's Word. Thank you Der Alte!
 
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Der Alte

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Yes, let me second BNR32FAN in saying you do a good work in staunchly defending God's Word. Thank you Der Alte!
Thank you. I try my best.
 
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