Do you think Easter is Christian?

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prodromos

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Sometimes it is difficult for people to understand that when NT writers talk about Scripture they are, in reality, speaking about the OT.
Except in the rare cases they actually specify the writings of the Apostles.
 
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Der Alte

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Last time I'll ask and address you regarding this topic:

Where are the 3 nights between Friday afternoon and Sunday morning? Friday night and Saturday night are 2 nights, not 3...

He WAS raised up on the 3rd day. He spent 3 days and nights in the grave JUST LIKE HE SAID HE WOULD.

He could not have been buried on Friday before sunset & then raised before sunrise on Sunday because that is NOT 3 days and 3 nights

Enough Witnesses from Scripture have been posted to show that indeed: YAHUSHA was buried on a Wednesday arose toward the end of Shabbat

Those that have eyes to see will see

Shalam

A counter question for you where is three nights and three days in Matthew 27:64, Matthew 26:61, Matthew 27:40, Mark 14:58, Mark 15:29, John 2:19-20, Matthew 16:21, Matthew 20:19, Luke 9:22, Acts of the Apostles 10:40, 1 Corinthians 15:4, Luke 18:33, Luke 24:7, Luke 24:21, Luke 24:46, Mark 9:31, Mark 10:34, Matthew 27:63.

Those that have eyes will see.
 
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roamer_1

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Sorry so late in replying, it was a busy weekend :)

So, first thing, the triumphal entry + at least 2 days = the first day of the feast of unleavened bread. From Matthew's chronology, we see at least 3 days, because it is the "next morning" before Jesus tells His disciples that it is "2 more days" till the passover.

Perfectly correct. The 'last supper' took place on Tuesday evening... The Garden of Gethsemane was late in that evening... Remember, Hebrews would reckon that 'the Day of Preparation' - From Tuesday evening until Wednesday 'between the evenings' when the slaughter of the lambs and the cooking of the meat began.

Following that, Judas agrees to betray Jesus, and then we have Jesus celebrating the Passover meal on the "first day of the feast of unleavened bread." He was arrested that very night, and brought before Pilate the next day, early in the morning. He is then questioned by Pilate, though we are told that the Pharisees did not go into the Praetorium "lest they should be defiled," because they "wanted to eat the Passover."

Your statement presents the contradiction - If they had indeed already eaten the Passover meal, why then would the Pharisees be defiled? They too would have already eaten the Passover by that point... The Passover is eaten at full dark the evening after the Preparation Day).

It is this same day, that is, the second day of the Feast of Unleavened Bread, that Jesus is crucified. It is also the day of Preparation, and the day before the Sabbath. This obviously cannot be referring to the 1st or the 7th day of the feast, because Jesus is brought to Pilate on the morning of the second day and crucified on the same day.

No, it was Tuesday even just before sundown... The feast/fast of the firstborn, when commonly, all leavened bread in the household is eaten (before it must be burned). Yeshua broke artos -Common bread -. and reclined at his meat (passover was eaten hurriedly, standing [staff in hand], with sandals and coat on, in the expectation of leaving Egypt). There Judas betrayed Him, that night was the Garden of Gethsemane, and his trial... the following morning (Still the day of Preparation) he began his affliction.

Exo 12:11 `And thus ye do eat it: your loins girded, your sandals on your feet, and your staff in your hand, and ye have eaten it in haste; it is Jehovah's passover [...]

Furthermore, John's account specifically declares the last supper (and Judas' betrayal) was before Passover, and that after Yeshua's death, they hurried to put him to rest so they could participate in the feast... How do you reconcile your interpretation with John?
 
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roamer_1

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As has been noted by many biblical scholars, three days and three nights counts also half or partial days.

Not with the legal qualification of death. At a day and a quarter the resurrection would be considered a ruse.
 
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prodromos

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Not with the legal qualification of death. At a day and a quarter the resurrection would be considered a ruse.
Except that Christ very publicly died at the hands of the Romans who were experts at making sure people were dead. The fact of His death was never in question.

Rising in three days ensured His body did not see corruption.
 
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nomadictheist

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Sorry so late in replying, it was a busy weekend :)



Perfectly correct. The 'last supper' took place on Tuesday evening... The Garden of Gethsemane was late in that evening... Remember, Hebrews would reckon that 'the Day of Preparation' - From Tuesday evening until Wednesday 'between the evenings' when the slaughter of the lambs and the cooking of the meat began.

No. As I said, the fact that Jesus said 2 more days till Passover shows it was at least 3 days.

Your statement presents the contradiction - If they had indeed already eaten the Passover meal, why then would the Pharisees be defiled? They too would have already eaten the Passover by that point... The Passover is eaten at full dark the evening after the Preparation Day).
The Feast of Unleavened Bread spans 7 days. When Pilate came before them and offered to release Jesus to them, as was customary during the feast, this shows that this was during the days of the feast of Unleavened Bread.

No, it was Tuesday even just before sundown... The feast/fast of the firstborn, when commonly, all leavened bread in the household is eaten (before it must be burned). Yeshua broke artos -Common bread -. and reclined at his meat (passover was eaten hurriedly, standing [staff in hand], with sandals and coat on, in the expectation of leaving Egypt). There Judas betrayed Him, that night was the Garden of Gethsemane, and his trial... the following morning (Still the day of Preparation) he began his affliction.

Exo 12:11 `And thus ye do eat it: your loins girded, your sandals on your feet, and your staff in your hand, and ye have eaten it in haste; it is Jehovah's passover [...]

Furthermore, John's account specifically declares the last supper (and Judas' betrayal) was before Passover, and that after Yeshua's death, they hurried to put him to rest so they could participate in the feast... How do you reconcile your interpretation with John?

You again quote the instructions for the first passover as though they were continual instructions for the passovers that followed. There is also an instruction in this same passage for them to take blood from the lamb and smear it on the doorposts and the lintel of the house where they're eating. These were specific instructions for them as they prepared to travel to the land God had promised them, in expectance of His deliverance from the Egyptians.

Theologians have debated for at least the last century about the differences in John's passion chronology and that of the other gospel writers. However, even these theological scholars agree that John's chronology has Jesus crucified on Friday and rising on Sunday. This chronology also fits with the saying that Jesus rose on the "third day."

It is only recently that a school of thought has diverged and claimed that John's passion chronology indicates a different crucifixion day (Wednesday) as well as a different resurrection day (Saturday). This "school of thought" thoroughly ignores that every gospel writer has Jesus crucified on the day before the Sabbath, and that the gospel of Mark even records that Jesus "Rose early on the first day of the week," and "appeared first to Mary Magdalene."

I personally don't have a lot of time or thought to focus on this discussion, nor have I extensively studied the various methods that scholars have used to harmonize John's account with the synoptic gospels. If we believe that John's gospel contradicts the others, then we must believe that either John or the three other gospel writers were wrong about the chronology (or were bending facts to fit their point). In that, we must remember that Matthew was also an apostle, that Mark had (so far as we can tell) the eyewitness testimony of Peter to rely on, and that Luke took relied on several eyewitness accounts.

And yet, for all of the apparent discord, the synoptic gospels and John's gospel still agree that the crucifixion occurred on Friday and the resurrection on Sunday morning. Even John writes that He was crucified the day before the Sabbath.
 
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roamer_1

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Except that Christ very publicly died at the hands of the Romans who were experts at making sure people were dead. The fact of His death was never in question.

Oh, no... Were the Pharisees able to cling to any legality, they surely would have. What reason was there to officially seal the tomb?



Rising in three days ensured His body did not see corruption.

Removing the miracle of protecting his body from corruption, predicted in the Psalms and Prophets.
 
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roamer_1

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No. As I said, the fact that Jesus said 2 more days till Passover shows it was at least 3 days.

Monday... It was 3 days... We are in agreement. Count Monday, count Tuesday, the third day begins Tuesday evening at sundown. Passover IS that day, beginning between the evenings.

The Feast of Unleavened Bread spans 7 days. When Pilate came before them and offered to release Jesus to them, as was customary during the feast, this shows that this was during the days of the feast of Unleavened Bread.

The feast, the High Holy Day, is the Passover meal - otherwise the 'feast' is unremarkable except in that unleavened bread is used. They wanted to keep the Passover feast. That's the whole point.

You again quote the instructions for the first passover as though they were continual instructions for the passovers that followed.

The only change indicated was at the time the Temple came into existence - Thereafter the killing was done at the Temple. That is the only change from the original instruction. The doorposts were still coated (in the sign of the cross), the cooking still happened at the residence...

Theologians have debated for at least the last century about the differences in John's passion chronology and that of the other gospel writers. However, even these theological scholars agree that John's chronology has Jesus crucified on Friday and rising on Sunday.

Christian scholars have shown a particular ignorance of the actual Hebrew Holy Days, and have a bone to pick, defending their tradition.

This chronology also fits with the saying that Jesus rose on the "third day."

So does a resurrection exactly in the gloaming - The dusk belongs to both days. In fact, the only way it works mathematically, defending 3 days, 3 days and 3 nights, 3 days legally dead, raised on the 3rd day, raised after 3 days, IS the resurrection exactly in the dusk - precisely as the High Priest exited his chamber to mark the sheaves...

It is only recently that a school of thought has diverged and claimed that John's passion chronology indicates a different crucifixion day (Wednesday) as well as a different resurrection day (Saturday).

The only way for all the Gospels to agree is to follow the more granular account of John.

This "school of thought" thoroughly ignores that every gospel writer has Jesus crucified on the day before the Sabbath [...]

Passover IS a High Sabbath.

and that the gospel of Mark even records that Jesus "Rose early on the first day of the week," and "appeared first to Mary Magdalene."

A resurrection in the gloaming Saturday evening does this no damage. In fact, 'rising early' would point more surely to Saturday evening, not Sunday morning... It is our gentile sensibility that day begins in the morning that is discordant... In fact, the day is half gone by morning.

I personally don't have a lot of time or thought to focus on this discussion, nor have I extensively studied the various methods that scholars have used to harmonize John's account with the synoptic gospels. If we believe that John's gospel contradicts the others, then we must believe that either John or the three other gospel writers were wrong about the chronology (or were bending facts to fit their point). In that, we must remember that Matthew was also an apostle, that Mark had (so far as we can tell) the eyewitness testimony of Peter to rely on, and that Luke took relied on several eyewitness accounts.

I would submit that the gospel accounts confirm John. I would submit also that the Prophecy demands it. There is no way you could possibly convince me that the events didn't follow YHWH's appointed time precisely. That appointment requires the perfect Lamb to be sacrificed at a precise moment - late in the afternoon on the Day of Preparation. That anyone would claim that THE LAMB - The one prophesied for twenty-five hundred years - was done a full day late is simply unconscionable.

He was certainly presented to the nation on Palm Sunday.
He was certainly inspected for his purity for four days.
He was certainly sacrificed precisely at the time required, in the afternoon of that fourth day.
and he certainly rose precisely in the timing of the marking of the sheaves.
He was simultaneously performing as High Priest and the Lamb.

That is what the Prophecy was *for*
That is what the Holy Day, the Appointed time was *for*

It is Christian hubris and blind tradition that require otherwise. And that, I think, is why he left us but one sign that he was Messiah - Without 3 days and 3 nights, one cannot see the precise fulfillment. Without 3 days and 3 nights, one doesn't pay attention to the detail, and one ignores YHWH's incredibly prophetic Moedim.

As if one ignores what Passover is for, one will also fully disregard the rest of the moedim - every one of which are all and only about Messiah, and his redemptive work for the Sons of Adam.
 
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Der Alte

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. . . Passover IS a High Sabbath. . . .

Passover is mentioned 48 times in the OT but Passover is never called a Sabbath and certainly not a High Sabbath. There was only one Sabbath in passion week, the weekly Sabbath. The Greek name for the day before the Sabbath is paraskeue, which means preparation. There was only one day of preparation during passion week the day before the weekly Sabbath.
Bauer, Arndt, Gingrich, Danker [BAGD] Lexicon of New Testament Greek.
παρασκευή paraskeue, h`", hJ ( trag. , Hdt. +; inscr. , pap. , LXX , Ep. Arist. , Philo , Joseph. ) lit. preparation ( Polyaenus 7, 21, 6 tou` deivpnou ; 7, 27, 3 polevmou ), in our lit. only of a definite day, as the day of preparation for a festival; acc. to Jewish usage ( Jos. , Ant. 16, 163; Synes. , Ep. 4 p. 161 D it was Friday, on which day everything had to be prepared for the Sabbath, when no work was permitted Mt 27:62 (CCTorrey, ZAW 65, ’53, 242= JBL 50, ’31, 234 n. 3, ‘sunset’. Against Torrey, SZeitlin, JBL 51, ’32, 263-71); Mk 15:42 ; J 19:31. hJmevra paraskeuh`" Lk 23:54 ( v.l.[/b][/color] hJm. prosabbavtou, cf. Mk 15:42 ). paraskeuh; tw`n jIoudaivwn J 19:42 . paraskeuh; tou` pavsca day of preparation for the Passover (or Friday of Passover Week ) vs. 1 4. For the Christians as well paraskeuhv served to designate the sixth day of the week (ESchürer, ZNW 6, ’05, 10; 11 f ) Friday MPol 7:1, and so in Mod. Gk. For Christians it is a fast day, as the day of Jesus’ death D 8:1.— M-M. B. 1008.*

BAGD Lexicon online

Justin Martyr [A.D. 110-165.] The First Apology Chap. LXVII.
But Sunday is the day on which we all hold our common assembly, because it is the first day on which God, having wrought a change in the darkness and matter, made the world; and Jesus Christ our Saviour on the same day rose from the dead. For He was crucified on the day before that of Saturn (Saturday); and on the day after that of Saturn, which is the day of the Sun, having appeared to His apostles and disciples, He taught them these things, which we have submitted to you also for your consideration.
 
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roamer_1

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Passover is mentioned 48 times in the OT but Passover is never called a Sabbath and certainly not a High Sabbath.

Leviticus 23 lists the Moedim - the Sabbath Day, and the High Sabbaths...

As to the rest, you'll have to explain how 3 days and 3 nights can occur between Friday evening and Sunday morning, and further explain more than 4 days for the inspection of the Lamb between Palm Sunday and Passover - Passover necessarily the evening of the fourth day.

If Palm Sunday is the day of the arrival of the lamb (which it is), then Passover cannot be at any time except Wednesday evening. Period.
 
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Dkh587

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Monday... It was 3 days... We are in agreement. Count Monday, count Tuesday, the third day begins Tuesday evening at sundown. Passover IS that day, beginning between the evenings.



The feast, the High Holy Day, is the Passover meal - otherwise the 'feast' is unremarkable except in that unleavened bread is used. They wanted to keep the Passover feast. That's the whole point.



The only change indicated was at the time the Temple came into existence - Thereafter the killing was done at the Temple. That is the only change from the original instruction. The doorposts were still coated (in the sign of the cross), the cooking still happened at the residence...



Christian scholars have shown a particular ignorance of the actual Hebrew Holy Days, and have a bone to pick, defending their tradition.



So does a resurrection exactly in the gloaming - The dusk belongs to both days. In fact, the only way it works mathematically, defending 3 days, 3 days and 3 nights, 3 days legally dead, raised on the 3rd day, raised after 3 days, IS the resurrection exactly in the dusk - precisely as the High Priest exited his chamber to mark the sheaves...



The only way for all the Gospels to agree is to follow the more granular account of John.



Passover IS a High Sabbath.



A resurrection in the gloaming Saturday evening does this no damage. In fact, 'rising early' would point more surely to Saturday evening, not Sunday morning... It is our gentile sensibility that day begins in the morning that is discordant... In fact, the day is half gone by morning.



I would submit that the gospel accounts confirm John. I would submit also that the Prophecy demands it. There is no way you could possibly convince me that the events didn't follow YHWH's appointed time precisely. That appointment requires the perfect Lamb to be sacrificed at a precise moment - late in the afternoon on the Day of Preparation. That anyone would claim that THE LAMB - The one prophesied for twenty-five hundred years - was done a full day late is simply unconscionable.

He was certainly presented to the nation on Palm Sunday.
He was certainly inspected for his purity for four days.
He was certainly sacrificed precisely at the time required, in the afternoon of that fourth day.
and he certainly rose precisely in the timing of the marking of the sheaves.
He was simultaneously performing as High Priest and the Lamb.

That is what the Prophecy was *for*
That is what the Holy Day, the Appointed time was *for*

It is Christian hubris and blind tradition that require otherwise. And that, I think, is why he left us but one sign that he was Messiah - Without 3 days and 3 nights, one cannot see the precise fulfillment. Without 3 days and 3 nights, one doesn't pay attention to the detail, and one ignores YHWH's incredibly prophetic Moedim.

As if one ignores what Passover is for, one will also fully disregard the rest of the moedim - every one of which are all and only about Messiah, and his redemptive work for the Sons of Adam.

The day of Passover is not a high sabbath.

“The Jews therefore, because it was the preparation, that the bodies should not remain upon the cross on the sabbath day, (for that sabbath day was an high day,) besought Pilate that their legs might be broken, and that they might be taken away.”
‭‭John‬ ‭19:31‬ ‭KJV‬‬

He was killed Passover afternoon(Wednesday), and that High Sabbath(1st day of unleavened bread) began at sunset later that night. which is why they took him down

The High Sabbaths are the 1st & 7th days of Unleavened Bread, Pentecost, Feast of Trumpets, Day of Atonement, and the 1st & 8th Days of the Feast of Tabernacles

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roamer_1

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The day of Passover is not a high sabbath.

Right - the High Sabbath starts with the Passover meal ~ After dark, at the beginning of the first day of Unleavened Bread (thus the High Sabbath). The confusion comes from Passover starting 'between the evenings' on the Preparation day. That is the time of the sacrifice, and the intervening time until dark is for cooking the lamb. The meal itself is on the High Day...
 
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Monday... It was 3 days... We are in agreement. Count Monday, count Tuesday, the third day begins Tuesday evening at sundown. Passover IS that day, beginning between the evenings.



The feast, the High Holy Day, is the Passover meal - otherwise the 'feast' is unremarkable except in that unleavened bread is used. They wanted to keep the Passover feast. That's the whole point.



The only change indicated was at the time the Temple came into existence - Thereafter the killing was done at the Temple. That is the only change from the original instruction. The doorposts were still coated (in the sign of the cross), the cooking still happened at the residence...



Christian scholars have shown a particular ignorance of the actual Hebrew Holy Days, and have a bone to pick, defending their tradition.



So does a resurrection exactly in the gloaming - The dusk belongs to both days. In fact, the only way it works mathematically, defending 3 days, 3 days and 3 nights, 3 days legally dead, raised on the 3rd day, raised after 3 days, IS the resurrection exactly in the dusk - precisely as the High Priest exited his chamber to mark the sheaves...



The only way for all the Gospels to agree is to follow the more granular account of John.



Passover IS a High Sabbath.



A resurrection in the gloaming Saturday evening does this no damage. In fact, 'rising early' would point more surely to Saturday evening, not Sunday morning... It is our gentile sensibility that day begins in the morning that is discordant... In fact, the day is half gone by morning.



I would submit that the gospel accounts confirm John. I would submit also that the Prophecy demands it. There is no way you could possibly convince me that the events didn't follow YHWH's appointed time precisely. That appointment requires the perfect Lamb to be sacrificed at a precise moment - late in the afternoon on the Day of Preparation. That anyone would claim that THE LAMB - The one prophesied for twenty-five hundred years - was done a full day late is simply unconscionable.

He was certainly presented to the nation on Palm Sunday.
He was certainly inspected for his purity for four days.
He was certainly sacrificed precisely at the time required, in the afternoon of that fourth day.
and he certainly rose precisely in the timing of the marking of the sheaves.
He was simultaneously performing as High Priest and the Lamb.

That is what the Prophecy was *for*
That is what the Holy Day, the Appointed time was *for*

It is Christian hubris and blind tradition that require otherwise. And that, I think, is why he left us but one sign that he was Messiah - Without 3 days and 3 nights, one cannot see the precise fulfillment. Without 3 days and 3 nights, one doesn't pay attention to the detail, and one ignores YHWH's incredibly prophetic Moedim.

As if one ignores what Passover is for, one will also fully disregard the rest of the moedim - every one of which are all and only about Messiah, and his redemptive work for the Sons of Adam.
You have posted a lot of unsupported opinion. Your approach doesn't reconcile the gospel accounts - it takes what you perceive as John's gospel chronology and set your perception of that chronology up as the standard by which all three other gospels must be interpreted. But even John says that Jesus was crucified on the day before the Sabbath, that is, Friday, and resurrected on the first day of the week, that is, Sunday. It's going to take a little more than you saying "nuh-huh" to the Gospels based on a single verse that every serious scholar of the Jewish reckoning of the time agrees will fit with the Friday crucifixion and Sunday morning resurrection.

All I can say is that you are so focused on "3 days and 3 nights" because of the way we understand it in our culture that you are unwilling to accept that it could have meant something different at that time, and that has dictated your entire approach to understanding the passion week.
 
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Leviticus 23 lists the Moedim - the Sabbath Day, and the High Sabbaths...

As to the rest, you'll have to explain how 3 days and 3 nights can occur between Friday evening and Sunday morning, and further explain more than 4 days for the inspection of the Lamb between Palm Sunday and Passover - Passover necessarily the evening of the fourth day.

If Palm Sunday is the day of the arrival of the lamb (which it is), then Passover cannot be at any time except Wednesday evening. Period.

I realize that it is critical for certain folks to make every facet of Jesus' life coincide with some feast or festival in the OT. But once again the 1st and 7th days of unleavened bread [ULB] are never called a Sabbath in the entire Bible. In fact the qodesh miqra/Holy Convocations of ULB are distinguished from Sabbaths in that the preparation and cooking of food is specifically permitted, although not mentioned that would require lighting fire. I know that certain folks who have chosen to take on all the practices of the Jews have their own unique interpretation which I am not interested in. What is important is how did the Jews understand this scripture? If you think the Jews were wrong about preparing and cooking food on ULB 1, 7 please provide compelling evidence.

Exodus 12:16 And in the first day there shall be an holy convocation, and in the seventh day there shall be an holy convocation to you; no manner of work shall be done in them, save that which every man must eat, that only may be done of you.

Jewish Encyclopedia-Passover
The festival occurred in Abib (Ex. xiii. 4; Deut. xvi. 1 et seq., where the New Moon is given as the memorial day of the Exodus), later named Nisan, and lasted seven days, from sunset on the fourteenth day to sunset on the twenty-first day; the first and the seventh days were set aside for holy convocation, no work being permitted on those days except such as was necessary in preparing food (Num. xxviii. 16-25).

http://www.jewishencyclopedia.com/articles/11933-passover
 
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The day of Passover is not a high sabbath.

“The Jews therefore, because it was the preparation, that the bodies should not remain upon the cross on the sabbath day, (for that sabbath day was an high day,) besought Pilate that their legs might be broken, and that they might be taken away.”
‭‭John‬ ‭19:31‬ ‭KJV‬‬

He was killed Passover afternoon(Wednesday), and that High Sabbath(1st day of unleavened bread) began at sunset later that night. which is why they took him down

The High Sabbaths are the 1st & 7th days of Unleavened Bread, Pentecost, Feast of Trumpets, Day of Atonement, and the 1st & 8th Days of the Feast of Tabernacles

7 total

Wrong! It is never stated in the OT that 1st and 7th days of Unleavened Bread are Sabbaths and certainly not High Sabbaths.
 
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Dkh587

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Wrong! It is never stated in the OT that 1st and 7th days of Unleavened Bread are Sabbaths and certainly not High Sabbaths.

Have you figured out yet how Friday afternoon to Sunday morning is 3 days and 3 nights?

Where is the 3rd night?

Friday night
Saturday night
...
 
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Have you figured out yet how Friday afternoon to Sunday morning is 3 days and 3 nights?

Where is the 3rd night?

Friday night
Saturday night...

I don't have to. I have more than one verse in my Bible. I am not the one trying to force a false 21st century interpretation onto the scripture. I understand historical context. Those who ignore their history are doomed to repeat it.

Jewish Encyclopedia-DAY
In the Bible, the season of light (Gen. i. 5), lasting "from dawn [lit. "the rising of the morning"] to the coming forth of the stars" (Neh. iv. 15, 17). The term "day" is used also to denote a period of twenty-four hours (Ex. xxi. 21).
In Jewish communal life part of a day is at times reckoned as one day; e.g., the day of the funeral, even when the latter takes place late in the afternoon, is counted as the first of the seven days of mourning; a short time in the morning of the seventh day is counted as the seventh day; circumcision takes place on the eighth day, even though of the first day only a few minutes remained after the birth of the child, these being counted as one day. Again, a man who hears of a vow made by his wife or his daughter, and desires to cancel the vow, must do so on the same day on which he hears of it, as otherwise the protest has no effect; even if the hearing takes place a little time before night, the annulment must be done within that little time. The day is reckoned from evening to evening—i.e., night and day—except in reference to sacrifices, where daytime and the night following constitute one day (Lev. vii. 15; see Calendar). "The day" denotes: (a) Day of the Lord; (b) the Day of Atonement; (c) the treatise of the Mishnah that contains the laws concerning the Day of Atonement (See Yoma and Sabbath).E. G. H. M. F.

Jewish Encyclopedia online
 
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