God's ordaining that people do something does not equate to people being "ordered" to do those things.
God ordaining an event to occur (Christ's death) doesn't equate to any individual being ordered to participate - with that I agree. But if God ordained a specific individual to a specific task, that would equate to an order for that person to do that task whether the person was aware of it or not.
nomotheteó (Greek) - ordain; enact; base legally (Heb 7:11, Heb 8:6)
Ordain (English) to officially appoint someone to a position; to officially establish or order something
kathistémi (Greek) - appoint, set in place, put in charge
shaphath (Hebrew) - put in place, set
male (Hebrew) - fill (often used in a generic and literal sense, but in the sense of ordain means to appoint or consecrate)
tsavah (Hebrew) - command, order, lay charge
Etc. Ordination carries with it the connotation of legal consent and will.
"He provided redemption for his people; he ordained his covenant forever-- holy and awesome is his name." Psalm 111:9
It is the covenant and all things pertaining to it (Christ's death and resurrection, the Gentiles being brought in, faith as the only way to receive Christ, etc.) which God foreordained.
Both. Just as the authoritative Calvinist Westminster Confession of Faith says.
“God from all eternity, did, by the most wise and holy counsel of His own will, freely, and unchangeably ordain whatsoever comes to pass; yet so, as thereby neither is God the author of sin, nor is violence offered to the will of the creatures; nor is the liberty or contingency of second causes taken away, but rather established.”
I have frequently seen this quoted in full by Calvinists, but never explained. This is not scripture; it is basically a statement that "We hold a view that states God ordains sin, but we hereby declare that we also hold the contradictory belief that God is not the author of sin."
The Westminster confession is not an explanation at all. It would be like someone saying, "We believe that God commanded, tempted, and ensured that Adam would eat the forbidden fruit, but not in any way that caused God to be responsible for Adam's sin or removed Adam's agency." That's not a reason why A doesn't mean B, rather it is declaring that one holds both A and not A to be true at the same time.
“God the great Creator of all things does uphold, direct, dispose, and govern all creatures, actions, and things, from the greatest even to the least, by His most wise and holy providence, according to His infallible foreknowledge, and the free and immutable counsel of His own will, to the praise of the glory of His wisdom, power, justice, goodness, and mercy.
That I agree with - but God doesn't have to govern by micromanagement nor must he determine every action man takes to ensure that His redemptive plan happens.
…… Although, in relation to the foreknowledge and decree of God, the first Cause, all things come to pass immutably, and infallibly; yet, by the same providence, He orders them to fall out, according to the nature of second causes, either necessarily, freely, or contingently. …………. . God, in His ordinary providence, makes use of means, yet is free to work without, above, and against them, at His pleasure.”
It can certainly be stated that everything in God's plan (Christ's death, resurrection, future judgement, prophecies, key points in history, etc.) will occur by God's decree. It can be said that everything else that occurs will occur according to God's foreknowledge - He is not going to be surprised by anything since time is merely another created dimension to Him. He can view time from all vantage points. However, that doesn't mean He must order every non-plan related instance to fall out exactly as it does. If it doesn't affect His plan whether a wave moves three inches or four, or a molecule pops up in one location vs. another, then He can freely allow nature to work within the bounds He has given it and not order them to fall out a certain way.
That is with the obvious exception of noting that "pre-limiting" and "setting boundaries beforehand" does determine what can and cannot happen and therefore what can and cannot be the destinies of things or persons in God's creation both ultimately and along the way.
Pre-setting boundaries does set limits on what can happen and what is impossible. Israel, notably, had more interference from God to work within His pre-set plans than any other nation. At time He enlarged the boundaries, at times allowed them to be subjected to other nations, and even hardened them in their stubbornness at the time of Christ. This was all to ensure His redemptive plan of bringing Christ through the nation of Israel take place. But even in this, the strongest example of God's limits on a nation in scripture, God didn't micromanage every action and destiny of the people within Israel. He set aside prophets and had kings anointed, but that is about the closest one can get to God deciding the destiny of a person - let alone their every action or thought.
The doctrine of predestination does not teach that God is associated intimately with the motion of every water molecule and every wave in the sea. Nor does the doctrine of sovereignty.
I'm glad you do not personally believe that, and I know it is not a view held by every Calvinist, but it is a common one. I've encountered several Calvinists (such as J.D. Greear) or other teachers that propose if a single molecule acted outside the *direct guidance* of God telling it or pushing it exactly where to go the universe would unravel, and things of that nature. Calvinism, as with any theory, is not a monolithic belief where every Calvinist believes the exact same things on everything.
"Do I not fill the heavens and the earth?" and "In Him we live and move and have our being." and "Are not two sparrows sold for a cent? And yet not one of them will fall to the ground apart from your Father."
Great verses, but they do not prove the Calvinist version of predestination as exclusive to all other theories. All they show is that a) God is everywhere, b) That God made men to seek him, we only have our life and being and existence due to God, and so we are all offspring of God in that sense (Acts 17:27-29,) and c) That God sees everything.
Basically, God is omnipresent, the omnipotent creator, and that He is omniscient as well. Few Christians would disagree with that, and that is hardly something that Calvinists alone believe.
As I have seen you do here with me - you are saying that you reject what Calvinists have clearly shown to any fair minded Bible believer to be scriptural.
I have yet to see any scripture that supports Calvinism to the exclusion of other views. I have seen (and posted) many scriptures that contradict the theory as a whole. I have seen a lot of insults towards non-Calvinists (in the thread, not calling out anyone in particular) saying they are on dangerous ground, Pelagian, anti-scripture, etc. Ad-hominems are not a good way to convince me a view is true.
You appear to be doing it because you wrongly attribute to them things they do not teach.
You not personally believing a common theory among Calvinists doesn't mean that no Calvinist teaches a thing or that it isn't a consistent corralory view along with TULIP. It would be impossible to debate what everyone's personal variant beliefs are on Calvinism or any other issue, so one can only discuss the common views of T.U.L.I.P. and closely held common implications that many prominent Calvinists believe and publically teach (like regeneration preceding faith, determinism, God ordaining sin, etc.) Discussing a common belief is not a straw-man, although you certainly are free to clarify that you reject such a teaching even when Calvinists hold to it. A strawman is not discussing a view actual people (but not you) hold, rather it is building a fake argument that is based on your interpretation of a view. 'Calvinists don't encourage evangelism' or 'Arminians believe that their own righteousness has a part in their salvation' are common straw-men on this topic.
If you are basing your theology on scripture only and not emotion – you will be in line with what true Calvinism teaches at least as far as these particular doctrines are concerned. In line with your straw men – not so much.
I'll have to defer to others reading the thread here. Have my posts been "emotion filled" or have they dealt with scripture? My overall thoughts on Calvinism are here: [Question: What is Calvinism and is it biblical? What are the five points of Calvinism? See Answer:
What is Calvinism and is it biblical? What are the five points of Calvinism?]
I've been researching this topic for years. I find that scripture easily dismantles many claims of Calvinism, and I have yet to find scripture verses or passages that demand Calvinism as the only (or even the best) explanation when context, limits of the word use (vs. philosophy pulled from an over-extrapolated interpretation,) and the underlying Greek are examined.