Sorry, I have read Romans 9 numerous times, and I believe it is you who need to carefully study it, since it is apparent you consider your interpretation the correct one, supporting the Calvinistic doctrine of predestination.
I agree that Romans 9 does not mean individual predestination. I have written a detailed analysis of what Paul and Peter meant when they said predestination. Ephesians cjhapters 1, 2 and 3 elaoborate the most about predestination and we can start from there:
Eph 1:4,5: "...He chose us in him before the foundation of the world ... he predestined us .. according to the purpose of his will"
==>
-- Does "us" refer to individuals who are predestined or pre-planned to be saved by God from beginning?
-- Or does "predestined us" mean other people? This can be answered from the next 50 verses, until Ephesian chapter 3.
Eph 1:11-14 -- "[11] In him we have obtained an inheritance, having been predestined according to the purpose of him ... we who were the first to hope in Christ ... [13] In him you also, when you heard the truth and believed in him ..."
===>
-- Why did Paul said we and you?
--- Who were the 'we' in "we were first to hope in Christ"? The first people to believe in Jesus were Jews, isn't it?
-- Who was 'you" in "When you heard the truth"? Chapter 2:11-3:11 explain it abundantly.
Eph 2:11-14 Therefore remember that formerly you,
the Gentiles in the flesh—who are called “uncircumcision”.... you were at that time without the Messiah, alienated from the citizenship of Israel... [13] But now in Christ Jesus you...have been brought near by the blood of Christ. [14] For he ... ,
the one who made both groups into one ... ==>>
-- Note that both NIV and ESV versions said "you, the Gentiles. so'you' referred to Gentiles.
- Paul was saying how Christ has bought TWO peoples. the Jews and Gentiles, together by offering salvation to both groups. This is the main theme of Ephesians, which is preached in countless sermons
Notice how Paul continued to emphasize God's will for Jews and Gentiles:
The word BOTH appears 3 times in the following verses:
2:16-22: to reconcile them BOTH in one body to God through the cross.... [18] so that through him
we BOTH have access in one Spirit to the Father ... you are members of the household of God, ,,, Christ Jesus himself being the cornerstone in whom the whole structure,
being joined together ===>
-- Paul was explaining how God had planned to reach out to both Jews and Gentiles, n reconciled them in Him - both groups shared the same redemption, inheritance and Holy Spirit. Jews n Gentiles are the subjects of discussion in chapter 1,2,3.
Rounding it up in chapter 3:
[3:1-6] --
When you read this, you can perceive my insight into the mystery of Christ, which was not made known to the sons of men in other generations ...[6] This mystery is that the Gentiles are members of the same body, and partakers of the promise in Christ Jesus through the gospel.
- In Ephesians chapter 1 to 3, Paul explained how Christ fulfilled the purpose of God's will, which is to reconcile BOTH Jews and Gentiles.
-- previous generations from Abraham to David and post-exile generations never knew God would reach out to Gentiles, which was "the mystery of God's will hidden from them. This will is NOT about God chose individuals, When God's plan or will was revealed to apostles' generation, many Christian Jews were shocked and resentful towards Paul (Eph 3:13), Peter n other disciples for preaching to Gentiles.
Back to Ephesians 1:
- Does predestination mean that God choose individuals OR does it mean God preplanned to offer redemption to both Jews and Gentiles? The entire three chapters support the latter theme.
--
If Paul was referring to individual predestination, wouldn't he elaborate on it further? Why would he IMMEDIATELY wrote about reconciliation of both Jews n Gentiles in the next 50 verses (2:13 to 3:13)?
-- Today, some people quoted 20 isolated verses from OT and NT which they think supported individual predestination. If these verses were convincing, i guess there would be no arguing or controversy now.
If Paul or the apostles had written and explained about individual predestination substantially, then there would be reason to believe it - but they didn't at all. Why didn't they, if it was true?
-- Eph 1:4,5,7,11 : God chose or predestined us refer to how He reached out to we the Jews first. Writing as a Jew, Paul used the word "we" and "us" as he referred to Jews [1:4,5,7]:
"We" refer to Christian JEWS such as the apostles, the earliest disciples who saw Jesus ascended to heaven, the 3000 Jews who believed during Pentecost, and other Christian Jews during apostles' generation -- broadly speaking. And as Paul referred to the audience of his letter, the Gentiles, he said "you too" or "you were also included" [13]. This explained the words "we" "us" and "you".
-
Why did Paul said "chose us before the "foundation of the Earth"? As Jewish Christians resented Gentile Christians (which was an extension of their disdain for Gentiles back then), they claimed that Jews were there first, and insisted that Gentile believers observed Sabbath and circumcision (which was a way to assert control and superiority). They even said that God at first never intended to offer redemption to Gentiles, but He suddenly decided to because most of Israel did not turn to Jesus. To reject their arguments, Paul emphasized that way-way back, even before the foundation of the earth, God had already planned or predestined to offer redemption to Gentiles. Even before the earth began, God had decided, that was how EARLY it really started - don't bother arguing that it was conceived lately.
"Before the foundation of the earth" is a figure of speech to emphasize that He predestined to offer at the earliest time anyone can think of. This also explain the word "foreknowledge"; God KNEW AHEAD - way, way ahead - that He would reached out to the Jews first, and then the Gentiles. Together these two groups cover everyone on earth, and anyone who confess their sins and ask for forgiveness in Christ would be forgiven and inherit eternal life.
-- When Paul and Peter further mentioned predestination in other Letters (Romans and Peter), they didn't write this way: "God predesined to offer redemption to the Jews first and then the Gentiles." Now, we should NOT expect then to use the exact words we want to see; instead, we have to understand they were writing to people back then, who knew the context - "predestination" was the phenomenal news of the time, spreading over the region to the Gentiles. Today, 2000 years later, some Christians are not interpreting "predestination" according to context of the Letters or even the entire Scripture, which does not even speak about individual predestination minimally; those handful of verses that people (mis)quoted are really (mis)interpretations because they are so awed or carried away by a word "predestine".