expos4ever
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- Oct 22, 2008
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About Matthew 5: Do you believe it is a coincidence that Jesus uses the same "end of the world" language to set a time when the Law will end as the Old Testament uses to describe events that have already occurred, well before the end of the world. For example, Isaiah writes:Jesus, the Authoritative over all scripture, disagrees that we can break God's law. Matthew 5:17-30
10For the stars of heaven and their constellations
Will not flash forth their light;
The sun will be dark when it rises
And the moon will not shed its light
What was going on? Babylon was being destroyed, never to be rebuilt. There are other examples of use of “end of the world” imagery to describe much more “mundane” events that have, in fact, already taken place.
And do you think it is a mere coincidence that Jesus says that the law will not end until "all is accomplished" and then these are His last words:
"It is finished"
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