I've been on vacation but wanted to say many have missed mine. The subject was Satan, I believe he will sit on the throne proclaiming to be God (it specifically states sides to the north)-something that has never happened in history. And others don't. It's that simple. I have scriptures that I believe back that up. Others see it differently. Unless someone can absolutely prove that's not going to happen within scripture, I don't believe my timing is off.
Again, I like to believe I have an open mind and have dropped doctrines in the past I once believed. I have also studied the Amil position a bit. Of course I don't claim to know that position entirely but I've seen different Amils with different views so it's confusing at times.
Just as is the case with Premils, not all Amils believe everything the same. There are partial preterist, idealist, historicist and futurist Amils and some Amils like myself who don't identify completely with any of those labels and have a view that is kind of a mix of all of those.
If you really want to understand Amil, then try to learn the things that all Amils believe first and then go from there and then it should be easier to understand.
For example, all Amils believe that Jesus began to reign after His resurrection (some might say after His ascension, but that's a minor difference) and we all reference scriptures like Matthew 28:16-18, Ephesians 1:19-23, Colossians 1:12-13, Revelatoin 1:5-6 and others) to back up that belief. And we believe Satan was bound at that time (Hebrews 2:14-15, 1 John 3:8, etc.).
All Amils believe that when Jesus returns He will destroy literally all unbelievers (Matthew 24:35-39, 2 Thess 1:7-10, 2 Peter 3:10-12, Rev 19:17-18).
All Amils believe that all of the dead will be resurrected at the same general time on the day Christ returns from heaven (John 5:28-29, Acts 24:15, Daniel 12:1-2).
All Amils believe that all people will be judged at the same time when Jesus returns with His angels (Matthew 13:36-43, Matthew 13:47-50, Matthew 25:31-46, 2 Thessalonians 1:7-10).
But I also realize that's the case with many premils as well.
Yep.
I know that preterist believe all has been fulfilled.
Well, full preterists believe that, but they are not Amils, they are Postmils. Partial preterists don't believe that. Of course, even partial preterists differ in how much they believe is fulfilled and how much is yet to be fulfilled.
Eclipse believes that Christ could return any moment. Which is why I put him in the same boat as the pretribbers and I suppose I mistakenly put SG in there as well.
It's clear to me, and I'm pretty sure you agree, that Paul made it clear in 2 Thessalonians 2:1-12 that certain things have to occur first before Christ returns, such as a mass falling away from the faith. Jesus made that same thing clear also in the Olivet Discourse (Matthew 24:10-13;23-26). Not sure how Eclipse misses that, but it's very clear to me and I'm sure to you as well. Unless he thinks those things all happened and are finished already? Not sure how anyone can come to that conclusion.
But again other than just a few verses here and there that might be questionable when it comes to Amil- when I take the bible as a whole, I just can't reconcile certain verses with it. Just as you have certain verses as well that base your belief.
Right. I, of course, believe the Bible aligns most closely with Amil. When you look at scripture that speaks of Christ reigning (Matthew 28:16-18, Acts 2:29-36, Ephesisans 1:19-23, Colossians 1:12-13, Revelation 1:5-6, etc.) , it is very clear to me that He has been reigning since His resurrection. So, I don't see any reason to see Revelation 20 any differently. In my view, the foundation of my doctrine is on clear scripture which I then use to help me understand more difficult and debatable scriptures. It's ironic that Amils get accused of spiritualizing everything to fit our doctrine when the truth of the matter is that the foundation of our view is on literal, clear, straightforward scripture.
Just to give you a couple examples of what I'm talking about....
Matthew 28:16 Then the eleven disciples went away into Galilee, into a mountain where Jesus had appointed them. 17 And
when they saw him, they worshipped him: but some doubted. 18 And
Jesus came and spake unto them, saying, All power is given unto me in heaven and in earth.
There are two things to notice here. First, you can see that some of the disciples were worshiping Jesus here. Would they do that if they didn't believe He was their King? No. And then Jesus Himself said "All power is given unto me in heaven and in earth". If that's not reigning, I don't know what is. So, I apply what is taught in passages like this to more difficult and debatable passages like Revelation 20.
Here is one more example:
John 5:28 Marvel not at this: for
the hour is coming, in the which all that are in the graves shall hear his voice, 29 And shall come forth; they that have done good, unto the resurrection of life; and they that have done evil, unto the resurrection of damnation.
Jesus said a singular hour or time (a one time event, in other words) is coming in "which ALL that are in the graves" will be resurrected from the dead. So, He taught that there is one general resurrection event where all of the dead will be raised at that time. Not at the same exact moment, necessarily, but in the same "hour". So, I apply what is taught in clear passages like this to what is indicated in more difficult passages like Revelation 20 instead of the other way around.
And what Jesus said here contrasts with the Premil view that there will be at least two mass resurrection events in the future. I have tried many times to get Premils to give me a reasonable and honest interpretation of this passage that can be reconciled with Premil and I have yet to see anyone do that. Maybe you could be the first?
We know Revelation is not in complete chronological order but I believe 19 until the end are.
Why do you believe that?
There's no reason after Christ returns to therefore go back in time again.
I should have read a little further before asking that. So, no real reason really other than you somehow conclude that "There's no reason after Christ returns to therefore go back in time again.". Is this how we should interpret scripture? With reasoning like this? I don't believe so. I'm honestly very surprised that you would think so. When it comes to our shared post-trib belief and refuting pre-trib, I believe you make some very sound arguments. But, when it comes to Premil...sorry...not so much.
I realize many see the 1000 years as symbolic while others see it literally. But to me it's impossible not to connect these verses after Christ returns-
Revelation 19:20 "And the beast was taken, and with him the false prophet that wrought miracles before him, with which he deceived them that had received the mark of the beast, and them that worshipped his image. These both were cast alive into a like of fire burning with brimstone."
Revelation 20:4 "And I saw thrones, and they sat upon them, and judgment was given unto them: and I saw the souls of them that were beheaded for the witness of Jesus, and for the Word of God, and which had not worshipped the beast, neither his image, neither had received his mark upon their foreheads, or in their hands; and they lived and reigned with Christ a thousand years."
I don't believe this event has not happened so then I don't believe the 1000 years started. Again, unless someone can show within scripture the event with the beast and the mark and those worshipping the beast has happened I will believe what the scriptures state.
I believe what the scriptures state just as much as you do. Believing what the scriptures state does not necessitate that we conclude that those things haven't started to happen yet and are all yet to happen.
Now, this is a more complicated thing to prove because it involves a lot of symbolism. But, this really illustrates the difference in your approach and mine. It seems to me that the foundation of your Premil doctrine is not on straightforward scripture like Amil's is, but rather on some of the most difficult to interpret verses and passages in all of scripture. Can you acknowledge this? Clearly, the book of Revelation is not written in a clear, straightforward manner. That is obvious and not up for debate. Not that every word in the book is symbolic or anything. I'm not saying that. But, it undeniably contains a good deal of symbolism that is not always easy to discern. Which is why there are many different interpretations of the book.
It would take me a lot of time to explain in detail my understanding of the beast, what it means to worship the beast and what the mark of the beast is, and so on. I don't have the desire to take that much time to explain that right now.
So, what I will do instead is show that the beast already existed before John wrote the book of Revelation and then you can think about what that means.
Revelation 17:8
The beast that thou sawest was, and is not; and shall ascend out of the bottomless pit, and go into perdition: and they that dwell on the earth shall wonder, whose names were not written in the book of life from the foundation of the world, when they behold the beast that was, and is not, and yet is.
Without going into great detail, I will just say that I believe the beast generally represents the world empire, kingdom and/or system that is in place at any given time in history. The heads of the beast represent world empires like the Babylonian, Media-Persian, Greek and Roman empires.
Notice that it says the beast "is not" and at some point in the future "shall ascend out of the bottomless pit". That implies that at the time John was writing the book, the beast was bound in the bottomless pit. Since I believe that the dragon, symbolically representing Satan, is tied to the beast (they always work hand in hand, so to speak) then I believe this also implies that Satan was bound in the bottomless pit with the beast at that time. Satan does his work using the beast, so if the beast is bound or restrained, then so is Satan. I think this is sound reasoning.
Therefore, I believe the time when the beast ascends out of the bottomless pit coincides with the time when the dragon (Satan) is loosed and ascends out of the bottomless pit. Keeping in mind that the beast and the dragon are symbolic entities represent Satan and his world kingdom, we should not think that a description of a beast and a dragon ascending from a bottomless pit should be taken literally. The beast and the dragon being bound in a prison and bottomless pit is symbolic of the restraint on wickedness that has been in place since the gospel started being preached through the power of the Holy Spirit after Christ's resurrection many years ago.
We also see verses like this-
Revelation 19:15 "And out of his mouth goeth a sharp sword, that with it he should smite the nations: and he shall rule them with a rod of iron: and he treadeth the winepress of the fierceness and wrath of Almighty God."
This is when he returns. He's going to rule the nations with a rod of iron.
But, what does that mean? It's symbolic language. Have you taken the time to study exactly what that means to rule with a rod of iron? We can see what that means in the prophecy that is based on here:
Psalm 2:7 I will declare the decree: the Lord hath said unto me, Thou art my Son; this day have I begotten thee. 8 Ask of me, and I shall give thee the heathen for thine inheritance, and the uttermost parts of the earth for thy possession. 9
Thou shalt break them with a rod of iron; thou shalt dash them in pieces like a potter's vessel.
Can you see here that ruling with a rod of iron does not match your understsanding of what that means as a Premil? This clearly indicates that ruling with a rod of iron involves Jesus destroying His enemies and compares it to breaking a vase into many pieces. Does that match your understanding of what it means for Jesus to rule with a rod of iron? I don't believe it does. Notice there that Him ruling with a rod of iron is associated directly with Him smiting (destroying) the nations and treading "the winepress of the fierceness and wrath of Almighty God". That is very clearly a picture of destruction there, not of Jesus shepherding His enemies as Premil always tries to claim. Notice what it says just after that verse:
Revelation 19:16 And he hath on his vesture and on his thigh a name written, King Of Kings, And Lord Of Lords. 17 And I saw an angel standing in the sun; and he cried with a loud voice, saying to all the fowls that fly in the midst of heaven,
Come and gather yourselves together unto the supper of the great God; 18 That ye may eat the flesh of kings, and the flesh of captains, and the flesh of mighty men, and the flesh of horses, and of them that sit on them, and the flesh of all men, both free and bond, both small and great.
This speaks of Jesus taking vengeance on His enemies, as Paul wrote about in 2 Thess 1:7-10 and, notice that John makes no exceptions here. Jesus will be destroying "all men, both free and bond, both small and great". That's the kind of thing you say when you're saying there are no exceptions. Literally all of His enemies will be destroyed when He comes and that is what is depicted in passages like 2 Thess 1:7-10, Matthew 24:35-39, Luke 17:26-37, 1 Thess 5:2-3 and 2 Peter 3:10-12 as well.