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Ruling? I see a description of judging here, not ruling over a period of time. Look at Matthew 25:31-46. It's talking about the same event as that passage talks about. On judgment day all people will stand before Jesus to give an account of themselves (Romans 14:10-12) with believers inheriting eternal life in the kingdom prepared for us from the foundation of the world and unbelievers being cast "into everlasting fire prepared for the devil and his angels (Matt 25:41). The disciples will seemingly have some role to play there as it relates to the twelve tribes of Israel. But, in no way, shape or form does that verse support Premil. Especially if you agree that it relates to Matthew 25:31-46.And we get a glimpse of the disciples ruling with him -
Matthew 19:28 "And Jesus said unto them, "Verily I say unto you, That ye which have followed Me, in the regeneration when the Son of man shall sit in the throne of His glory, ye also shall sit upon twelve thrones, judging the twelve tribes of Israel.
You seem to be attempting to downplay the current status of our current Great God and Savior, Jesus Christ, the current King of kings and Lord of lords. That is something I very much dislike about Premil. That it says He will sit on the throne of His glory to judge the world at His coming does not mean He doesn't currently sit on the throne of His glory now. It means that He will sit on it to judge at that point, which He has not done yet.Christ is sitting on the right hand of God at this moment when he returns he will sit in the throne of HIs glory. He will not be sitting on the right hand.
You should not base your doctrine on assumptions about what it means for Jesus to sit at the Father's right hand. Scripture tells us what that means. Please look at the following passage which describes His status after ascending to the right hand of the Father:
Ephesians 1:19 And what is the exceeding greatness of his power to us-ward who believe, according to the working of his mighty power, 20 Which he wrought in Christ, when he raised him from the dead, and set him at his own right hand in the heavenly places, 21 Far above all principality, and power, and might, and dominion, and every name that is named, not only in this world, but also in that which is to come: 22 And hath put all things under his feet, and gave him to be the head over all things to the church, 23 Which is his body, the fulness of him that filleth all in all.
Please look at this objectively. What does it indicate? It clearly indicates that when Jesus was raised from the dead and when He ascended to the Father's "own right hand in the heavenly places", He was placed in a position "Far above all principality, and power, and might, and dominion, and every name that is named...in this world". Agree? And it says God the Father "hath put all things under his feet, and gave him to be the head over all things to the church". How could Jesus not already be sitting on His throne of glory when He ascended to the right hand of the Father when at that point He had authority over all things and "every name that is named" and had all things put under his feet while be made the head over all things in the church? How could He ever have any more authority than what scripture describes Him as already having long ago when He ascended to the right hand of the Father?
I'm not following your line of reasoning here. Not all scripture that speaks of judgment day has all the same details about it. Matthew 25:31-46 obviously has a lot more details about it than Matthew 19:28. And then Revelation 20:11-15 has other details about it. You are either forgetting or overlooking something here.We know that on that final Judgement Day it will be only one throne and God. So this a time period before the final judgement day when others are ruling and judging with him.
Revelation 20:11 "And I saw a great white throne, and him that sat on it, from whose face the earth and the heaven fled away: and there was found no place for them."
Revelation 20:12"And I saw the dead, small and great, stand before God; and the books were opened: and another book was opened, which is the book of life: and the dead were judged out of those things which were written in the books, according to their works."
Again, one throne, one God.
John 5:22 For the Father judgeth no man, but hath committed all judgment unto the Son:
It's not as if this verse will suddenly no longer be true at the GWT judgment. It has to be Jesus judging there because "the Father judgeth no man, but hath committed all judgment unto the Son".
How can anyone think that Matthew 25:31-46 is a different judgment than Revelation 20:11-15 when this...
Matthew 25:41 Then shall he say also unto them on the left hand, Depart from me, ye cursed, into everlasting fire, prepared for the devil and his angels:
Is the same as this:
Revelation 20:10 And the devil that deceived them was cast into the lake of fire and brimstone, where the beast and the false prophet are, and shall be tormented day and night for ever and ever......15 And whosoever was not found written in the book of life was cast into the lake of fire.
I'm again not following your reasoning here. Where does Paul give any indication whatsoever there that there would be a long period of time between Christ's second coming and "the end" when He delivers up the kingdom to God the Father? Nowhere. You are inserting 1000 years where it doesn't belong. You are adding to the scripture, which you should never do.Amils talk about Christ being the firstfruits and that's true.
I Corinthians 15:23 "But every man in his own order: Christ the firstfruits; afterward they that are Christ's at His coming."
I Corinthians 15:24 "Then cometh the end, when He shall have delivered up the kingdom to God, even the Father; when He shall have put down all rule and all authority and power."
This would be after the 1000 years because he hasn't even sat on his throne of glory with the disciples judging with them, etc. It states when he shall have put down all rule, and all authority and power.
Your reasoning is based on a false premise that Jesus sitting on His throne of glory to judge has anything to do with ruling for 1,000 years. It absolutely does not. Look at what happens to the sheep/believers and the goats/unbelievers when He comes to judge. The sheep inherit "eternal life" in the kingdom of God at that time. According to Paul in 1 Corinthians 15:50-54 "flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom of God" and believers will all have immortal bodies at that point. Hence inheriting eternal life.
The goats/unbelievers, on the other hand, are cast "into everlasting fire prepared for the devil and his angels" at that time, which I believe is an obvious reference to the lake of fire (Revelation 20:15). Where does this allow any room for 1,000 year millennial reign over mortals on the earth? It doesn't. At that point, all believers will have eternal life in immortal bodies and all unbelievers will be cast into the fire.
Do you believe in using scripture to interpret scripture? I certainly do. The Greek words "protos" (first) and "anastasis" (resurrection) are only used together in one other verse in scripture.But when talking about the 2 resurrections in chapter 20 Christ isn't talking about himself. He's talking about the 2 resurrections that take place after his return.
Acts 26:23 That Christ should suffer, and that he should be the first (protos) that should rise (anastasis) from the dead, and should shew light unto the people, and to the Gentiles.
So, I completely disagree with you on this. The first resurrection itself was Christ's resurrection and that is indicated in verses like 1 Cor 15:20, Col 1:18 and Rev 1:5 as well. What it means to have part in the first resurrection is to have part in some way in Christ's resurrection.
Did you know what you and I have had part in His resurrection?
Romans 6:1 What shall we say then? Shall we continue in sin, that grace may abound? 2 God forbid. How shall we, that are dead to sin, live any longer therein? 3 Know ye not, that so many of us as were baptized into Jesus Christ were baptized into his death? 4 Therefore we are buried with him by baptism into death: that like as Christ was raised up from the dead by the glory of the Father, even so we also should walk in newness of life.
Colossians 2:12 Buried with him in baptism, wherein also ye are risen with him through the faith of the operation of God, who hath raised him from the dead. 13 And you, being dead in your sins and the uncircumcision of your flesh, hath he quickened together with him, having forgiven you all trespasses;
Ephesians 2:4 But God, who is rich in mercy, for his great love wherewith he loved us, 5 Even when we were dead in sins, hath quickened us together with Christ, (by grace ye are saved) 6 And hath raised us up together, and made us sit together in heavenly places in Christ Jesus:
It is your assumption that what is described in Revelation 20 follows what is described in Revelation 19 chronologically. I used to assume that, too. But, then I found that interpreting Revelation 20 that way did not line up with the rest of scripture.He specifically states what is the first resurrection after his return -
Everything you said after this was based on that assumption, so I'm not going to take the time to comment on the rest of what you said. Keep in mind that the Greek word translated as "lived" when it says "they lived and reigned with Christ a thousand years" in Revelation 20:4 is "zao" and has a different meaning then the word translated as "lived...again" (anazao) in verse 5. The word "zao" does not refer to the act of being resurrected from the dead, but anazao does. So, Revelation 20:4 is referring to the souls of the dead in Christ being alive and living with Christ in heaven during the symbolic thousand years since He began reigning after His resurrection.
Please compare Revelation 20:6 to Revelation 1:5-6 and see the similarities. I have color coded Revelation 20:6 and also color coded Revelation 1:5-6 so the similarities can be clearly seen.The rest of the dead lived not again until after the final judgement Day. Those have to wait for their resurrection. The ones that made it before the 1000 years- Christ states the 2nd death has no power over them because they've already made it.
Revelation 20:6 "Blessed and holy is he that hath part in the first resurrection: on such the second death hath no power, but they shall be priests of God and of Christ, and shall reign with him a thousand years."
Revelation 20:6 "Blessed and holy is he that hath part in the first resurrection: on such the second death hath no power, but they shall be priests of God and of Christ, and shall reign with him a thousand years."
Revelation 1:5 And from Jesus Christ, who is the faithful witness, and the first begotten of the dead, and the prince of the kings of the earth. Unto him that loved us, and washed us from our sins in his own blood, 6 And hath made us kings and priests unto God and his Father; to him be glory and dominion for ever and ever. Amen.
I trust that you can see the similarities. What John described in Revelation 1:5-6 was a current reality already in his day when he wrote that. And it lines up with what he wrote in Revelation 20:6, so, to me, that means Revelation 20:6 was already a current reality when he wrote the book as well. Notice he indicated that Jesus was currently "the prince of the kings of the earth" at that time. So, already reigning at that time. And notice that John called Jesus "the first begotten of the dead". An obvious similarity to "the first resurrection". And notice that he said Jesus "HATH MADE us kings and priests unto God and his Father". A present reality. Revelation 20 should be interpreted accordingly.
What is it that makes it so that the second death has no power over someone? Their bodily resurrection? No. Again, we can interpret Revelation 20:6 using Revelation 1:5-6. Having our sins washed away means the second death has no power over us because the wages of sin is death (Romans 6:23) and Christ paid the price for our sins for us. So, the second death has no power over us now and has no power over the souls of the dead in Christ who are with Jesus in heaven now. We don't need to wait to be raised from the dead in order for the second death to have no power over us.
I thought you said you have an open mind? I guess not.We're not going to change each other's minds
As I have pointed out before, Satan being cast down results in him no longer being able to accuses us before God in heaven anymore (Rev 12:10). Well, he hasn't been able to do that for a long time now. As Paul said in Romans 8:33, "who can lay anything to the charge of God's elect?" while implying that the answer is "no one". That includes Satan because our sins are forgiven! What can anyone charge/accuse us of when our sins are forgiven and forgotten? Nothing.but I was only responding to SG because he stated my timing was off and I responded that I don't believe that because Satan has not sat on the throne to the sides of the north proclaiming to be God. I believe when he's literally cast out that will happen, that's when he, the devil will thrown some in prison so on.
One thing to consider about that "short time" is that the phrase "short time" is translated from the Greek words "oligos" (short) and "kairos" (time). The word "oligos", translated as "short" in Revelation 12:12 and "few" in other verses when not used in relation to time, does not imply a literally short amount of time. It refers to a relatively short amount of time (in comparison to all time) or limited amount of time without giving any indication of it being a literal short amount of time, a medium amount of time or a long time.I believe that he literally will be here with his angels. Again, others don't. I'm fine with that. I was just responding to again the belief that my timing is off. If Satan has not sat on the throne yet, I don't believe my timing is off as it has not happened yet. I believe his spirit is here for sure but I don't believe he himself, as in a very real being has not been here to deceive for that short time. A time Christ has shortened.
The word is used in this verse:
Matthew 22:14 For many are called, but few (oligos) are chosen.
Was Jesus saying a literally small amount of people are chosen? No. We know that "a great multitude" of people are God's chosen (Revelation 7:9). A literally high number. But, compared to the number of people who are called, it is relatively few. So, that is how the "short time" that Satan had since being cast out of heaven should be understood as well. It's a relatively short or limited amount of time rather than being a literally short amount of time.
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