No "replace", they both speak of "falling from salvation". Beloved-brother can be deceived by sin to spiritual death (thanatos) in ch1, and saved-brethren can wander from the truth to "soul-death" (psuche-thanatos) and uncovered/unforgiven sins.HeyMikey80 said:Neglecting the moment the attempt to replace James 1:14-16 with James 5:19-20 to try to make a different case on a much later context ...
The only way it's not "spiritual/eternal", is if we can be carried away by LUSTS but remain SAVED.It's interesting to me that you'd make this assertion. James 1:14-16 doesn't explicitly state this is about spiritual/eternal death.
So --- believers can be enticed and overcome by lust and sin, but still be saved? Do you believe this?It doesn't state salvation in explicit terms. Its prior context looks to a "crown of life", which itself could be understood by Jewish hearers as a this-life victory.
Seems we've established "soteriological meaning" in these verses. If not, then let's hear how you answer the questions I've just asked.The problem with a focus on soteriology to the exclusion of nonsoteriological meanings is that it neglects the broader meaning of the statement. Not everything is soteriology -- it may cover more than soteriology.
Two choices:As you've pulled this together from an overemphasis on soteriology, and as I've pointed out, "Not everything is soteriology", I wonder why you think anyone would even try.
1. Sinningly-saved (not about soteriology)
2. Sin and salvation are incompatible (soteriological)
"Dead-faith" is "saved"? If you say "yes", then you're asserting "non-soteriological passage". If you say "no", then you're asserting "soteriological".Not everything is soteriology. Who said James was talking about salvation? As James himself put it, faith has no use. That's a this-world, practical application of faith, Ben. That's not soteriology. That's obedience.
What's your answer --- "dead-faith-saved"? Or "dead-faith-unsaved"?
The "actual answer", is in response to the assertion of "ALSO GENTILES".The passage flatly denies it. The answer you're proposing, "God's will doesn't desire people's destruction", is drowned in his actual answer, "Who are you to talk back to God? Shall what is made say to who made it, 'Why have YOU made me this way?'"
An "Also Gentiles" passage, does not transfer to "sovereign-election". Just the same as an "I-am-authorized" passage (John6:25-44) does not transfer to "sovereign-election".
His WILL, is NOT for men to perish (2Pet3:9); both passages use "boulema" for the verb. God's DESIREOUS will, is that all who see Jesus and believe, be saved.Paul's answering a question. "Who resists his will?" The supposition implied here is a direct contradiction to your idea that they've "prepared THEMSELVES for destruction".
Then you're asserting that God is the author of their sin.Greek grammar allows "prepared BY SOMEONE ELSE for destruction". And semantic context already closed the door on the middle case. It's "prepared by God", and that's clear from the context, where Paul cites God as the Maker in all cases.
How do I convince you that a perfect Creator, who HATES sin, can never CAUSE sin?Does sin exist?
You argue that "man must follow his nature"; which is true, but not in the way you think. But you MISS the fact that "God must also follow His nature".
He cannot cause sin.
Look at Rom5:17; justification is received --- volitionally.Not missing it. You're swapping in another issue. Let's focus on the question, and not spiral out to some other issue. Paul states flatly that the people chosen are the people justified.
Justification CAME to ALL MEN, in exactly the same measure as condemnation CAME to ALL MEN. Rom5:18.There're only two choices, Ben:
1. Everyone is justified.
2. God chooses fewer than everyone.
Justification must be received. Verse 17.
The "initiated-by-God", was Jesus-on-the-Cross; that "whosoever WOULD believe, be saved."Always stated, never factual, never demonstrated. By "passive" Reformed theologians mean we're always responding to something initiated by God. But philosophically that's obvious. When there's a Prime Mover, everything else is not the Prime.
Please read Matt7:24-27; then answer two questions:And theologically, that's passivity.
1. Does "ACT", mean "believe"?
2. Is man active or passive in Jesus' words?
God never manipulates the heart; the heart decides to believe. Rom10:9-10, Rom6:17No cutting to the heart, no God working in the heart, no God changing the will, everything subject to man's consideration. That's not the truth of Scripture, as Acts 2:37 points out, as do a variety of other verses:
You take "by the Spirit" here, to be apart from man's volition? How do you miss the rest of Rom2, where God's kindness is MEANT to lead us to repentance; but by hard unrepentant hearts we store up WRATH for ourselves?But a Jew is one inwardly, and circumcision is a matter of the heart, by the Spirit, not by the letter. Rom 2:29
In Rom8:12-13, we EITHER walk in the flesh (if we do, we must die!) --- OR by the Holy Spirit we put to death the deeds of the flesh, and live.
Look at what I just quoted in Rom8, Mike; by the Spirit WE put to death the flesh. It does NOT say "the SPIRIT puts to death our flesh FOR us".
This in opposition to your view that "the Spirit changes our hearts FOR us, and THEN we believe/persevere".
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