ESV, 1P 2:
Dr James White
said to Steve Gregg:
That's one translation of it.
Is there an eternal decree of God relating to salvation?
This question is overly loaded and needs to be made more precise.
Gregg answered:
Gregg made a distinction between God-determined stumbling and disobedience as two distinct things here.
Let's examine the Greek:
Actually the word 'because' was not in the Greek. Instead, there were
stumble [because]
προσκόπτουσιν (proskoptousin)
Verb - Present Indicative Active - 3rd Person Plural
Strong's 4350: From pros and kopto; to strike at, i.e. Surge against; specially, to stub on, i.e. Trip up.
they disobey
ἀπειθοῦντες (apeithountes)
Verb - Present
Participle Active - Nominative Masculine Plural
Strong's 544: To disobey, rebel, be disloyal, refuse conformity. From apeithes; to disbelieve.
The second verb functioned as an adverbial participle for the first verb.
Berean Literal Bible:
ὃ (ho)
Personal / Relative Pronoun - Accusative Neuter
Singular
Strong's 3739: Who, which, what, that.
Grammatically, the disobedient stumbling was a singular unit.
It was wrong for Gregg to separate the two verbs as two distinct units. Certain individuals are destined to stumble disobediently in the context of accepting or rejecting Jesus.
Does this stumbling imply that they will go to hell?
I want to be extra careful when it comes to eternal condemnation. Peter's passage suggests that this is the case to some degree, but I don't think it's a universal 100% implication, as claimed by White. For one thing, the strings 'condemn' or 'hell' are no where in the chapter. See
double predestination.