CaliforniaKid said:Because in the Trinity, the Holy spirit is co-equal, distinct and a person. He is not God's. That would imply possession of something. And if you possess something/one, you have some authority over that person/thing. Trinitarianism shuns authority.Why isn't it the Trinity?
If this is so, then why does the son he sired call someone else "father?" This can only be possible, if the Holy Spirit belongs to the Father. In that case, the co-equality is nullified. So you see why I say it is not exactly trinitarian.**I still recognize that the Holy Spirit is a separate person from the other two (while in unity with them),
yet even so he is "Spirit", he is "of God", and it is by his operative power that God begat His Son (much like the sperm metaphor you used).
I agree with that statement. Again, it is not Trinitarianism. Being god, or "of God" is different from being the Most High God. TD (Trinity Doctrine) states that Christ and the Holy Spirit and the Father are altogether the Most High God. This is false doctrine.
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From your earlier post:
Thus it is possible to speak of "God" as the father of Jesus and of "the Father" as the father of Jesus even though his conception occurred by the operative power of the Holy Spirit,
I agree with you here. The Most High God and the Father are the same, literally. One. Scriptural.
because the three are one.
I disagree. Unscriptural here.
You see, I don't necessarily disagree with you that God overshadowed Mary with "His own Spirit" so that his Son could be born on earth, because the Holy Spirit is his own Spirit according to the above model. Does that make sense?
I agreed with the above, but see the **above. As long as the HS is the Father's I agree. If he is a co-equal, 3rd person, I disagree because he would have become a contender for the son of God since it was he who overshadowed Mary. Do you see what I mean?
I disagree. Co-equality is something I've always had questions about. Even if Jesus is equal in nature to the Father, he at least willingly subjects himself to Him. I'm not clear on that point but don't consider it a major issue, and so I won't argue with you there.
Why isn't the father ever submitting to Jesus except to answer him in much the same way we hope that he answers when we call on him? Trinitarians are quick to cite the "I and my father are one," scripture but rarely if ever, cite the one that says, "my father is greater..."
So, if 1+4=5, then 1+4-2=3. We must use all the equations provided to get the correct answer.
-CKBut I think it's fairly clear that they are one substance, as I outlined in the diagram above. If they aren't one substance, then we have two Gods.
Trinitarians also say that each member is distinct so are they of the same substance or distinct or both? See the confusion?
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