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swordsman1

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Sure it answered your question and evidently it stung you.

It didn't answer my question, it was just the usual ad-hominen anti-cessationist rant. And it certainly didn't sting me. I am quite used to charismatics insulting me when they are confronted with the biblical truth. Just look at the recent posts in this topic. In fact I am quite happy to be reviled for fighting for the faith.

"If you are reviled for the name of Christ, you are blessed" (1 Peter 4:14)
 
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swordsman1

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the answer is yes, but the WoF tend to dodge that, and throw it back upon those of us who refuse to accept and teach their "full Gospel"

Pentecostalism's claim that is it the "Full gospel" is an affront to the redemptive work of Christ. It implies the gospel is somehow lacking and you do not have the 'full gospel' unless you subscribe to Pentecostalism.
 
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swordsman1

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You have to show that in the life of Jesus, He IS God. did He ever say to anyone who came to Him "no I will not heal you." Did the apostles ever say so?

Then how do you explain the thousands of Christians with cancer who have prayed to God for healing, but did not received it and subsequently died? God did not grant their healing did he.
 
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LoveofTruth

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Then what you are doing is making unwarranted assumptions and reading you own ideas into scripture which are not there. The timeline in Acts indicates Paul was left on his own in Athens.



So you admit that "we" in 1 Thes 2:2 is just Paul and Silas who suffered in Philippi. If you say Paul is not using the word "we" loosely, but that he uses it consistently to refer to the same people, then your own logic proves that Timothy at least was not an apostle. Verses 1 and 2 are the same sentence, so the "our coming to you" in v1 must also be just Paul and Silas; and the other "we" in verse 2 must also be just Paul and Silas, the "we .... who speak to you" (otherwise Paul's grammar is completely up the creek). So if it is Paul and Silas who "came to you" and "spoke to you" then, as your logic would dictate, the "we" in the following verses must also be just Paul and Silas. So Timothy was not an apostle in v6. (But we knew that anyway from the way Paul referred to Timothy in the opening of his other epistles - "Paul, an apostle of Christ Jesus...and Timothy our brother”).



The Pulpit commentary is right, Timothy was in Athens, and was sent to Thessalonica in 1 Thes 3:2. The so the "we" who were left behind in 1 Thes 3:1 definitely does not include Timothy. The timeline in Acts would indicate that it doesn't include Silas either.

Here are a couple of other more up-to-date commentaries:

Wayne Grudem - Systematic Theology

a. Qualifications of an Apostle: The two qualifications for being an apostle were (1) having seen Jesus after his resurrection with one’s own eyes (thus, being an “eyewitness of the resurrection”), and (2) having been specifically commissioned by Christ as his apostle.4

The fact that an apostle had to have seen the risen Lord with his own eyes is indicated by Acts 1:22, where Peter said that person to replace Judas “must become with us a witness to his resurrection.” Moreover, it was “to the apostles whom he had chosen” that “he presented himself alive after his passion by many proofs, appearing to them during forty days” (Acts 1:2–3; cf. 4:33).

Paul makes much of the fact that he did meet this qualification even though it was in an unusual way (Christ appeared to him in a vision on the road to Damascus and appointed him as an apostle: Acts 9:5–6; 26:15–18). When he is defending his apostleship he says, “Am I not an apostle? Have I not seen Jesus our Lord?” (1 Cor. 9:1). And when recounting the people to whom Christ appeared after his resurrection, Paul says, “Then he appeared to James then to all the apostles. Last of all, as to one untimely born, he appeared also to me. For I am the least of the apostles, unfit to be called an apostle” (1 Cor. 15:7–9).

These verses combine to indicate that unless someone had seen Jesus after the resurrection with his own eyes, he could not be an apostle.
...

Others have been suggested as apostles. Silas (Silvanus) and sometimes Timothy are mentioned because of 1 Thessalonians 2:6: “though we might have made demands as apostles of Christ.” Does Paul include Silas and Timothy here, since the letter begins, “Paul, Silvanus, and Timothy” (1 Thess. 1:1)?

It is not likely that Paul is including Timothy in this statement, for two reasons. (1) He says just four verses earlier, “we had already suffered and been shamefully treated at Philippi, as you know” (1 Thess. 2:2), but this refers to the beating and imprisonment which happened just to Paul and Silas, not to Timothy (Acts 16:19). So the “we” in verse 6 does not seem to include all of the people (Paul, Silvanus, Timothy) mentioned in the first verse. The letter in general is from Paul, Silas and Timothy, but Paul knows that the readers will naturally understand the appropriate members of the “we” statements when he does not mean to include all three of them in certain sections of the letter. He does not specify “—that is, Silas and I—had already suffered and been shamefully treated at Philippi, as you know,” because the Thessalonians will know who the “we” are that he is talking about.

(2) This is also seen in 1 Thessalonians 3:1–2, where the “we” certainly cannot include Timothy:

Therefore when we could bear it no longer, we were willing to be left behind at Athens alone, and we sent Timothy our brother and God’s servant in the gospel of Christ, to establish you in your faith and to exhort you. (1 Thess. 3:1–2)

In this case, the “we” refers either to Paul and Silas, or else just to Paul alone (see Acts 17:14–15; 18:5). Apparently Silas and Timothy had come to Paul in Athens “as soon as possible” (Acts 17:15)—though Luke does not mention their arrival in Athens—and Paul had sent them back to Thessalonica again to help the church there. Then he himself went to Corinth, and they later joined him there (Acts 18:5).

It is most likely that “We were willing to be left behind at Athens alone” (1 Thess. 3:1), refers to Paul alone, both because he picks up the argument again in verse 5 with the singular “I” (“When I could bear it no longer, I sent that I might know your faith,” 1 Thess. 3:5), and because the point concerning extreme loneliness in Athens would not be made if Silas had stayed with him.8 In fact, in the previous paragraph, Paul means “I,” for he says, “We wanted to come to you—I, Paul, again and again—but Satan hindered us” (1 Thess. 2:18). Apparently he is using “we” more frequently in this epistle as a courteous way of including Silas and Timothy, who had spent so much time in the Thessalonian church, in the letter to that church. But the Thessalonians would have had little doubt who was really in charge of this great mission to the Gentiles, and on whose apostolic authority the letter primarily (or exclusively) depended.

So it is just possible that Silas was himself an apostle, and that 1 Thessalonians 2:6 hints at that. He was a leading member of the Jerusalem church (Acts 15:22), and could well have seen Jesus after his resurrection, and then been appointed as an apostle. But we cannot be very certain.

The situation with Timothy is different, however. Just as he is excluded from the “we” of 1 Thessalonians 2:2 (and 3:1–2), so he seems to be excluded from the “we” of 1 Thessalonians 2:6. Moreover, as a native of Lystra (Acts 16:1–3) who had learned of Christ from his grandmother and mother (2 Tim. 1:5), it seems impossible that he would have been in Jerusalem before Pentecost and would there have seen the risen Lord and come to believe in him, and then suddenly have been appointed as an apostle. In addition, Paul’s pattern of address in his letters always jealously guards the title “apostle” for himself never allowing it to be applied to Timothy or others of his traveling companions (note 2 Cor. 1:1; Col. 1:1: “Paul, an apostle of Christ Jesus...and Timothy our brother”; and then Phil. 1:1: “Paul and Timothy, servants of Christ Jesus”). So Timothy, as important a role as he had, should not rightly be considered one of the apostles.



John Stott - The Message of 1 & 2 Thessalonians [Intervarsity, 1994], 71-74.

Three points may be made. First, Luke in Acts is quite clear that Paul was the leader of his mission team. Silas had been chosen to replace Mark, and Mark had been only a "helper' [cf. Acts 13:5; 15:37ff]. Timothy, though much loved, was clearly a junior [Cf. Acts 16:1ff]. Luke does indeed couple 'Paul and Silas' as fellow prisoners [cf. Acts 16:19, 22, 25, 29), Roman citizens [cf. Acts 16:38], and co-labourers [cf. Acts 16:40; 17:4]. Yet he makes it clear that Paul did the preaching, in both the Thessalonian and the Berean synagogues [cf. Acts 17:2-3, 11]. If, then, he was the leading preacher, it is all but certain that he was the leading writer (of 1 Thessalonians] too.

Secondly, Paul was an Apostle, whereas Silas and Timothy were not. True, Silas was a leader in the Jerusalem church, an official delegate of the Jerusalem Council and a Prophet [cf. Acts 15:22, 27, 32], but he is never named an Apostle. Nor is Timothy. In fact, in later letters Paul deliberately distinguishes himself from Timothy in this respect by writing 'Paul, an Apostle of Christ Jesus and Timothy our brother' (cf. 2 Cor 1:1; Col. 1: 1; cf. 1 Cor 1: 1; Phm 1).

It is in the light of this that we must understand the surprising expression 'as Apostles of Christ we could have been a burden to you' (1 Thes. 2:6b). Either Paul was using the word 'Apostles' here in its broader sense of 'missionaries' (cf. Acts 14:4, 14; 2 Cor 8:23; Phil 2:25], or he was referring to himself as the Apostle but was forced by grammar to write 'Apostles' in the plural, in order to be in apposition to 'we' (rather like 'we were left alone [monoi, plural]' in 3:1).

Thirdly, there are many examples in Paul's other letters where he moves from "I" to "we" without appearing to change the identity of the subject. ... his use of "we" is never incompatible with his leadership role in the mission team and never lessens his authority as an Apostle of Jesus Christ.
No you are in error here. Just because Paul refers to a past even using “we” to refer to eithe he Silis and Timothy or he and Silus. Does not change the context of vs 6. When addresses them. We already saw that the we addressing the church was Paul Silvanus and Timotheus so the we as apostles would include all three.

Also I have to check wether Timothy was wityPsul and Silus in the situation and perhaps only Paul and Silus were taken so they may have all been there.

And because Luke may not have recorded every detail doesn’t mean it didn’t happen. The words “we” “us” and “our @ refer to all three of them or two f them in certain context. Either way vs 6 is clearkyall three of them speaking in context to the Church. All through chapter 1,2,3 we see Paul speaking in the plural form of he Dilvanus and Timotheus.
 
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swordsman1

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Actually if you have only biblical knowledge of God, and have not experience anything from Him, your knowledge is very very limited, only God can open our eyes to the spiritual truths described in the bible.

Objective truth is not determined by subjective experiences. If your experiences are not biblical they count for nothing.
 
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Objective truth is not determined by subjective experiences. If your experiences are not biblical they count for nothing.

Woah, like a true cessationist there!, if you say God opening your eyes to spiritual truths, or things that the Holy spirit do are 'subjective' experiences you can't rely on, then you are more mistaken.

The spiritual truths need to be revealed to you by God, either with understanding from God or an experience, you don't get them by just reading a phrase.
 
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LoveofTruth

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Then what you are doing is making unwarranted assumptions and reading you own ideas into scripture which are not there. The timeline in Acts indicates Paul was left on his own in Athens.



So you admit that "we" in 1 Thes 2:2 is just Paul and Silas who suffered in Philippi. If you say Paul is not using the word "we" loosely, but that he uses it consistently to refer to the same people, then your own logic proves that Timothy at least was not an apostle. Verses 1 and 2 are the same sentence, so the "our coming to you" in v1 must also be just Paul and Silas; and the other "we" in verse 2 must also be just Paul and Silas, the "we .... who speak to you" (otherwise Paul's grammar is completely up the creek). So if it is Paul and Silas who "came to you" and "spoke to you" then, as your logic would dictate, the "we" in the following verses must also be just Paul and Silas. So Timothy was not an apostle in v6. (But we knew that anyway from the way Paul referred to Timothy in the opening of his other epistles - "Paul, an apostle of Christ Jesus...and Timothy our brother”).



The Pulpit commentary is right, Timothy was in Athens, and was sent to Thessalonica in 1 Thes 3:2. The so the "we" who were left behind in 1 Thes 3:1 definitely does not include Timothy. The timeline in Acts would indicate that it doesn't include Silas either.

Here are a couple of other more up-to-date commentaries:

Wayne Grudem - Systematic Theology

a. Qualifications of an Apostle: The two qualifications for being an apostle were (1) having seen Jesus after his resurrection with one’s own eyes (thus, being an “eyewitness of the resurrection”), and (2) having been specifically commissioned by Christ as his apostle.4

The fact that an apostle had to have seen the risen Lord with his own eyes is indicated by Acts 1:22, where Peter said that person to replace Judas “must become with us a witness to his resurrection.” Moreover, it was “to the apostles whom he had chosen” that “he presented himself alive after his passion by many proofs, appearing to them during forty days” (Acts 1:2–3; cf. 4:33).

Paul makes much of the fact that he did meet this qualification even though it was in an unusual way (Christ appeared to him in a vision on the road to Damascus and appointed him as an apostle: Acts 9:5–6; 26:15–18). When he is defending his apostleship he says, “Am I not an apostle? Have I not seen Jesus our Lord?” (1 Cor. 9:1). And when recounting the people to whom Christ appeared after his resurrection, Paul says, “Then he appeared to James then to all the apostles. Last of all, as to one untimely born, he appeared also to me. For I am the least of the apostles, unfit to be called an apostle” (1 Cor. 15:7–9).

These verses combine to indicate that unless someone had seen Jesus after the resurrection with his own eyes, he could not be an apostle.
...

Others have been suggested as apostles. Silas (Silvanus) and sometimes Timothy are mentioned because of 1 Thessalonians 2:6: “though we might have made demands as apostles of Christ.” Does Paul include Silas and Timothy here, since the letter begins, “Paul, Silvanus, and Timothy” (1 Thess. 1:1)?

It is not likely that Paul is including Timothy in this statement, for two reasons. (1) He says just four verses earlier, “we had already suffered and been shamefully treated at Philippi, as you know” (1 Thess. 2:2), but this refers to the beating and imprisonment which happened just to Paul and Silas, not to Timothy (Acts 16:19). So the “we” in verse 6 does not seem to include all of the people (Paul, Silvanus, Timothy) mentioned in the first verse. The letter in general is from Paul, Silas and Timothy, but Paul knows that the readers will naturally understand the appropriate members of the “we” statements when he does not mean to include all three of them in certain sections of the letter. He does not specify “—that is, Silas and I—had already suffered and been shamefully treated at Philippi, as you know,” because the Thessalonians will know who the “we” are that he is talking about.

(2) This is also seen in 1 Thessalonians 3:1–2, where the “we” certainly cannot include Timothy:

Therefore when we could bear it no longer, we were willing to be left behind at Athens alone, and we sent Timothy our brother and God’s servant in the gospel of Christ, to establish you in your faith and to exhort you. (1 Thess. 3:1–2)

In this case, the “we” refers either to Paul and Silas, or else just to Paul alone (see Acts 17:14–15; 18:5). Apparently Silas and Timothy had come to Paul in Athens “as soon as possible” (Acts 17:15)—though Luke does not mention their arrival in Athens—and Paul had sent them back to Thessalonica again to help the church there. Then he himself went to Corinth, and they later joined him there (Acts 18:5).

It is most likely that “We were willing to be left behind at Athens alone” (1 Thess. 3:1), refers to Paul alone, both because he picks up the argument again in verse 5 with the singular “I” (“When I could bear it no longer, I sent that I might know your faith,” 1 Thess. 3:5), and because the point concerning extreme loneliness in Athens would not be made if Silas had stayed with him.8 In fact, in the previous paragraph, Paul means “I,” for he says, “We wanted to come to you—I, Paul, again and again—but Satan hindered us” (1 Thess. 2:18). Apparently he is using “we” more frequently in this epistle as a courteous way of including Silas and Timothy, who had spent so much time in the Thessalonian church, in the letter to that church. But the Thessalonians would have had little doubt who was really in charge of this great mission to the Gentiles, and on whose apostolic authority the letter primarily (or exclusively) depended.

So it is just possible that Silas was himself an apostle, and that 1 Thessalonians 2:6 hints at that. He was a leading member of the Jerusalem church (Acts 15:22), and could well have seen Jesus after his resurrection, and then been appointed as an apostle. But we cannot be very certain.

The situation with Timothy is different, however. Just as he is excluded from the “we” of 1 Thessalonians 2:2 (and 3:1–2), so he seems to be excluded from the “we” of 1 Thessalonians 2:6. Moreover, as a native of Lystra (Acts 16:1–3) who had learned of Christ from his grandmother and mother (2 Tim. 1:5), it seems impossible that he would have been in Jerusalem before Pentecost and would there have seen the risen Lord and come to believe in him, and then suddenly have been appointed as an apostle. In addition, Paul’s pattern of address in his letters always jealously guards the title “apostle” for himself never allowing it to be applied to Timothy or others of his traveling companions (note 2 Cor. 1:1; Col. 1:1: “Paul, an apostle of Christ Jesus...and Timothy our brother”; and then Phil. 1:1: “Paul and Timothy, servants of Christ Jesus”). So Timothy, as important a role as he had, should not rightly be considered one of the apostles.



John Stott - The Message of 1 & 2 Thessalonians [Intervarsity, 1994], 71-74.

Three points may be made. First, Luke in Acts is quite clear that Paul was the leader of his mission team. Silas had been chosen to replace Mark, and Mark had been only a "helper' [cf. Acts 13:5; 15:37ff]. Timothy, though much loved, was clearly a junior [Cf. Acts 16:1ff]. Luke does indeed couple 'Paul and Silas' as fellow prisoners [cf. Acts 16:19, 22, 25, 29), Roman citizens [cf. Acts 16:38], and co-labourers [cf. Acts 16:40; 17:4]. Yet he makes it clear that Paul did the preaching, in both the Thessalonian and the Berean synagogues [cf. Acts 17:2-3, 11]. If, then, he was the leading preacher, it is all but certain that he was the leading writer (of 1 Thessalonians] too.

Secondly, Paul was an Apostle, whereas Silas and Timothy were not. True, Silas was a leader in the Jerusalem church, an official delegate of the Jerusalem Council and a Prophet [cf. Acts 15:22, 27, 32], but he is never named an Apostle. Nor is Timothy. In fact, in later letters Paul deliberately distinguishes himself from Timothy in this respect by writing 'Paul, an Apostle of Christ Jesus and Timothy our brother' (cf. 2 Cor 1:1; Col. 1: 1; cf. 1 Cor 1: 1; Phm 1).

It is in the light of this that we must understand the surprising expression 'as Apostles of Christ we could have been a burden to you' (1 Thes. 2:6b). Either Paul was using the word 'Apostles' here in its broader sense of 'missionaries' (cf. Acts 14:4, 14; 2 Cor 8:23; Phil 2:25], or he was referring to himself as the Apostle but was forced by grammar to write 'Apostles' in the plural, in order to be in apposition to 'we' (rather like 'we were left alone [monoi, plural]' in 3:1).

Thirdly, there are many examples in Paul's other letters where he moves from "I" to "we" without appearing to change the identity of the subject. ... his use of "we" is never incompatible with his leadership role in the mission team and never lessens his authority as an Apostle of Jesus Christ.
I don’t actually agree yet that in 1 Thess 2:2 it was just Paul and Silus. If you read Acts 16 it seems that Timothy was also with them in all thier journeys but only Paul and Silus were “caught”

So Paul May be speaking of al three again.
 
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swordsman1

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opinion based on zero scripture.
the 2 prophets told of in revelation are just proof the 2 prophets havnt come yet

It's right there in Rev 11:3

And I will appoint my two witnesses, and they will prophesy for 1,260 days, clothed in sackcloth.

Why would God have to specifically appoint 2 prophets, if the gift of prophecy hadn't ceased?
 
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swordsman1

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No you are in error here. Just because Paul refers to a past even using “we” to refer to eithe he Silis and Timothy or he and Silus. Does not change the context of vs 6. When addresses them. We already saw that the we addressing the church was Paul Silvanus and Timotheus so the we as apostles would include all three.

Also I have to check wether Timothy was wityPsul and Silus in the situation and perhaps only Paul and Silus were taken so they may have all been there.

And because Luke may not have recorded every detail doesn’t mean it didn’t happen. The words “we” “us” and “our @ refer to all three of them or two f them in certain context. Either way vs 6 is clearkyall three of them speaking in context to the Church. All through chapter 1,2,3 we see Paul speaking in the plural form of he Dilvanus and Timotheus.

Oh, but it is Paul and Silus in the present. This is what 1 Thes 2:1-2 says

"For you yourselves know, brethren, that our coming to you was not in vain, but after we had already suffered and been mistreated in Philippi, as you know, we had the boldness in our God to speak to you the gospel of God amid much opposition."

The "our" and the 2x"we" in that sentence must be referring to the same people. If the "we who had suffered" is Paul & Silas then it was Paul and Silus that came to the Thesselonians and spoke to them. Otherwise you are saying Paul is being inconsistent with his pronouns. The very thing you accuse my interpretation of doing. In fact yours is even worse, Paul is mixing up his pronouns even in the same sentence.
 
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swordsman1

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I don’t actually agree yet that in 1 Thess 2:2 it was just Paul and Silus. If you read Acts 16 it seems that Timothy was also with them in all thier journeys but only Paul and Silus were “caught”

So Paul May be speaking of al three again.

So where it says "they seized Paul and Silas and dragged them into the market place before the authorities", Luke was being economical with the truth and it was really Paul, Silas and Timothy?

And all the other references to just "Paul and Silas" being in prison in Acts 16 were really "Paul, Silas, & Timothy".

Come off it.
 
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Now when Jesus said my "sheep hear my voice" we are told this was a figure of speech (John 10:6). Jesus is not literally a shepherd; we are not literally sheep; and we not literally hear his voice. It is a metaphor. So if it not the audible voice of God, then it must be other option. The Lord's voice is his speaking to us in scripture. Not thoughts popping into our heads.
Its shear arrogance to claim that God doesn't speak to people today, when there are millions of Christians who regularly hear his voice.

I first heard the Lord speak to me over ten years before I heard the gospel. He came to me twice, the second time with very specific words which I would later find confirmed in scripture.

Your hardness of heart will continue to keep you deaf and spiritually blind like the Pharisees, until the day you repent and seek him.
I have been hearing Him speak to me for over 50 years, and have had many thousands of encounters with his words or visions.

Tell me, if the following wasn't the Lord, then who was it?
In this situation, hearing the Lord's voice saved my life, when he warned me in advance of an imminent car crash.
As I was driving at 60 mph along a country road behind a line of cars at night getting ready to overtake, I distinctly heard the Lord urgently saying, "pullback, pull back, pull back!"

Instantly, I took my foot of the throttle and started to coast with my foot covering the brake, very alert for something. Suddenly a monstrous black shape leapt over the hedge and I immediately hit the brakes and skidded to a halt.
I was in a Renault Espace which is very wedge shaped and whatever it was, violently hit the front of the car, and was swept clean over the roof.
It turned out to be a jet black cow, and the impact marks showed it had come across the full width of the car, but due to the low speed, the only damage was a smashed wing mirror and the small quarter light window. Plus muddy abrasion marks left to right and front to back over the roof.

Had I been driving at 60, instead of coasting, it would have come through the windscreen and most likely killed me or my wife.

We were of course shocked, but extremely thankful for the mercy of the Lord.

So despite swordsman's objections, the Lord still says, ""My sheep hear My voice, and I know them, and they follow Me;."

No matter how much you know your bible, it will never warn you of a car crash will it!

.
 
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Francis Drake

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"If you are reviled for the name of Christ, you are blessed" (1 Peter 4:14)
But swordsman you are not being reviled for the name of Christ at all.
It is your proclamation of the demonic doctrines of cessationism that is being reviled
 
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swordsman1

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Woah, like a true cessationist there!, if you say God opening your eyes to spiritual truths, or things that the Holy spirit do are 'subjective' experiences you can't rely on, then you are more mistaken.

The spiritual truths need to be revealed to you by God, either with understanding from God or an experience, you don't get them by just reading a phrase.

No, biblical experiences are legitimate. They match the truth of scripture. I'm referring to charismatic 'experiences' that are not biblical - non-human tongues, prophecies and "hearing My voice" that are fuzzy feelings, clairvoyancy, slain in the Spirit, etc, etc.
 
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No, biblical experiences are legitimate. They match the truth of scripture. I'm referring to charismatic 'experiences' that are not biblical - non-human tongues, prophecies and "hearing My voice" that are fuzzy feelings, clairvoyancy, slain in the Spirit, etc, etc.

Hearing the voice of God is very biblical, also the Holy spirit says will guide us to the truth.

If God would like to warn someone of something, or say he will do something to them, he is going to do it to people, and this is hearing the voice of God too, even if some others don't believe.

I wonder where abraham would be if he couldn't listen to God, there was no bible back then.

God just didn't got muted becasue some people refuse to believe.
 
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swordsman1

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Hearing the voice of God is very biblical, also the Holy spirit says will guide us to the truth.

If God would like to warn someone of something, or say he will do something to them, he is going to do it to people, and this is hearing the voice of God too, even if some others don't believe.

I wonder where abraham would be if he couldn't listen to God, there was no bible back then.

God just didn't got muted becasue some people refuse to believe.

Having a strong feeling and claiming it is God's voice or a 'word from the Lord" is very unbiblical. Where in scripture are feelings described as the voice of God? I've just shown from scripture the only possible meaning of God's 'voice'. If I'm wrong then please refute it.
 
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NBB

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Having a strong feeling and claiming it is God's voice or a 'word from the Lord" is very unbiblical. Where in scripture are feelings described as the voice of God? I've just shown from scripture the only possible meaning of God's 'voice'. If I'm wrong then please refute it.

The voice of God can be spiritual, it doens't neccesarily is an audible voice, and when he tells you something, you usually can understand, and can tell its Him, he makes himself understand.
 
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Alithis

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No, im simply refuting your assertion. As for your question, I have love in my heart for those with mental health issues who suffer at the hands of charismatic extremists. Does that count?
You may wish to look up the word refute again .
 
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No, im simply refuting your assertion. As for your question, I have love in my heart for those with mental health issues who suffer at the hands of charismatic extremists. Does that count?
Thats your answer?
The question was...
have you recieved the holy Spirit and do you speak in tongues, heal the sick, prophecy ,dream dreams, have visions are you FREE from sin ?
 
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