In the KJV, the words "great tribulation" are in Revelation 7:14.
I already said that Douggg. This is the third time in the last two days you're repeating the things I wrote.
The word great tribulation is only mentioned 3 times found in the new testament: Matthew 24:21, Revelation 2:22, Revelation 7:14.
Now look at this also. The word great tribulation is only mentioned 3 times found in the new testament: Matthew 24:21, Revelation 2:22, Revelation 7:14. Read it carefully and all the surrounding verses, there's nothing in the word great tribulation pointing to a 3.5 year period. Under scrutiny, you can see the author is writing about Daniel's 70th week, not the second half of the week.
Actually, I have not been using the term 3 1/2 years or 3.5 years.
It's called the Time of Jacob's trouble. That's the only place in the entire bible that gives the second half of the 70th week a name.
All other terms the bible uses: Tribulation, Great Tribulation, Wrath and Daniel's 70th week are all synonmously refers to the final 7 years before the second coming.
Only man breaks down the first half calling it the tribulation and the second half the great tribulation. Jesus did not call the second half of the 70th week the great tribulation and I can prove it. In fact, He refuted it being called the great tribulation.
The great tribulation in Revelation 7:14 is not 7 years in length.
Yep! This was exactly the verse I felt why you don't see a first half of the 70th week in the book of Revelation. Since the words "great tribulation" was used, you think the great multitude was raptured into heaven during the second half of the 70th week. You eliminated the first half of the tribulation from the book of Revelation Douggg.
In Matthew 24:15 Jesus stated that the great tribulation begins when the abomination of desolation is setup to be worshiped.
No He's not telling you the 2nd half is called the great tribulation. Jesus was telling us
there will be a time of great tribulation.
What if Jesus had said
there will be a time of
great distress instead? Or a time of
great anguish? They all mean the same thing. There's also a possibility the word was translated differently ending up with the word tribulation in the english version of the bible.
But Jesus was not calling the second half of the tribulation by name to be called the great tribulation. He's just telling us it's a time of great distress on earth.
And I can prove this, later.
Matthew 24:15-22New King James Version (NKJV)
15 “Therefore when you see the ‘abomination of desolation,’ spoken of by Daniel the prophet, standing in the holy place” (whoever reads, let him understand), 16 “then let those who are in Judea flee to the mountains.17 Let him who is on the housetop not go down to take anything out of his house. 18 And let him who is in the field not go back to get his clothes. 19 But woe to those who are pregnant and to those who are nursing babies in those days! 20 And pray that your flight may not be in winter or on the Sabbath. 21
For then there will be great tribulation,
such as has not been since the beginning of the world until this time, no, nor ever shall be. 22 And unless those days were shortened, no flesh would be saved; but for the elect’s sake those days will be shortened.
From Daniel 12:7 the worst time in Israel's history lasts a time, times, half times. That is the second half of the seventh week.
Well Douggg, Daniel's prophecy is about Israel, not the church. So of course the worst time in Israel is the length a time, times and half a time. This doesn't prove anything.
Now if Daniel had actually wrote a prophecy about the church during the final 7 years, it would be a time, times, times and times in length.
I don't use the term "tribulation" because it is not a bible term for the 7 years, and if the second half is the time of Jacob's troubles - then how can the Jews during the first half, most of it at least, they will be saying peace and safety, before sudden destruction comes up on them?
If they are saying peace and safety, they cannot be in tribulation. And the question is why are they saying peace and safety? It will be because they will think they have entered the messianic age - but it will be a false messianic age.
This is wrong Douggg. The bible mentions peace and safety in the new testament. The prophecies in the NT is about the church. The prophecies in the OT is about Israel.
And look where the words "peace and safety" is found. It's written by Paul in 1st Thessalonians 4-5. This is the scripture by Paul on the rapture of the church. The rapture is for the church. It has nothing to do with Israel.
You're confusing what Paul wrote "peace and safety" and connecting it to the middle of the tribulation when the a/c invades Israel. This is totally not correct. Paul wasn't writing about Israel in 1st Thessalonians 4 and 5.
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In the entire bible, old and new, many terms has been used to describe the final 7 years before Christ's return. The bible calls the final 7 years the tribulation, the great tribulation, the time of God's wrath and Daniel's 70th week.They all mean the same thing, the final 7 years.
Only in the old testament is there one name given for the second half of the 70th week, the bible calls the Time of Jacob's trouble.
It's purely man-made separating the first half calling it the tribulation and calling the second half the great tribulation. The bible does NOT do that.
The words great tribulation is only mentioned 3 times in the entire bible, you can easily check and see none of the writers used the words great tribulation to refer to the second half. None.
The word tribulation in the King James is mentioned 25 times and 32 times in the NKJV. Most of verses are even prophecies of the end times. A few that are uses the word tribulation in reference to Daniel's 70th week, the final 7 years. Not the first half. Here's the proof.
Matthew 24:29King James Version (KJV)
Immediately after the tribulation of those days shall the sun be darkened, and the moon shall not give her light, and the stars shall fall from heaven, and the powers of the heavens shall be shaken:
Now everyone knows this scripture refers to the end of Daniel's 70th week when Christ returns at the second coming.
Look what Matthew wrote. He said immediately after the
tribulation. This includes the second half of Daniel's 70th week. Now if the bible actually does separate the first half as the tribulation and the second half as the great tribulation, shouldn't Matthew had written "immediately after the
great tribuiation" instead?
It's the same thing in Mark 13:24. He wrote that Jesus comes immediately after the tribulation, not after the great tribulation. You know why? It's because they are all giving an account of what they heard from Jesus during the olivet discourse. Meaning that Jesus called the final 7 years before His return the Tribulation, not the Great Tribulation.