You explained how sons of Satan had dead faith. Implying Peter had dead faith.This has nothing to do with what I saying.
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You explained how sons of Satan had dead faith. Implying Peter had dead faith.This has nothing to do with what I saying.
Like I said, I have two Greek texts. And one says "believed Him", not "in" Him. You need to substantiate why "in" is supposed to be there.Well, according to the Greek they did believe in Jesus.
Jesus seems to suggest that Judas never truly believed (John 6:70).
Already did. "Him" is in the dative case:Like I said, I have two Greek texts. And one says "believed Him", not "in" Him. You need to substantiate why "in" is supposed to be there.
I agree with what you say concerning "dead faith". And I think that "dead faith" can be demonstrated.Ether way it does not disprove my Position of Dead Faith.
In the Ancient Near East, pistis, mistranlated as belief, was understood to mean loyalty.Well, according to the Greek they did believe in Jesus.
You explained how sons of Satan had dead faith. Implying Peter had dead faith.
You posted that the sons of Satan had dead faith, implying that Peter had dead faith. Can't escape that incriminating evidence.I never implied anything about Peter, you did. I said Peter had alive Faith ( not Dead faith) The Book of James is the one who is comparing dead faith with demons.
Of course they do, they called him Son of God didn't they? (FIRST PHASE OF LOYALTY).If Jesus were the direct object of their faith then "him" would be in the accusative and would look like αυτον. But, since it is in the dative we know that Jesus is the indirect object of their faith - hence they believe in him.
That may be what's going on.It's similar to how demons & the devil believe who Jesus is, but they still rebel against Him.
You posted that the sons of Satan had death faith, implying that Peter had dead faith. Can't escape that incriminating evidence.
Oh his association is not of sonship, it's worse, he IS Satan!Except that Peter is not one of the Sons of Satan, and you trying to make him one is just asinine.
I think Jesus was speaking to an audience of those who believed and others who did not believe in John 8.In John 8 we encounter a group of Jews who were believing in Jesus...
Although they believe in Jesus, they do not appear to truly be his disciples. A corrective from Jesus is needed...
Jesus then goes on to say to these believers that they are slaves of sin (John 8:34), his word finds no place in them (John 8:37), that their father is the devil and not God (John 8:44), and that they do not believe in Jesus (John 8:45).
How is it possible to be both believing and unbelieving at the same time? How is it possible to be a believer in Jesus and yet a son of the devil, as John shows us?
Dative case just indicates the object. There's still nothing showing it's "in" Him.Already did. "Him" is in the dative case:
τοὺς πεπιστευκότας αὐτῷ Ἰουδαίους
αὐτῷ means "in him".
Dative case just indicates the object. There's still nothing showing it's "in" Him.
Dative case - Wikipedia
Dative case just indicates the object. There's still nothing showing it's "in" Him.
Dative case - Wikipedia