Well, the context does repeat --- "water-spirit", is repeated with "flesh-spirit". Why is it a stretch to see another "repeated narrative", between these two?
"Unless you are born-from-above, you cannot see the kingdom."
"Unless you are born ...of the Spirit, you cannot enter into the kingdom."
It is stretch because it is not emphatically stated by Jesus. In verse 6 Jesus literally spells out what he meant in verse 5-
Jhn 3:5 Jesus answered, "Truly, truly, I say to you, unless one is born of water and the Spirit he cannot enter into the kingdom of God.
Jhn 3:6 "
That which is born of the flesh is flesh, and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit.
But in verse 5 he does not state that what he actually meant in verse 3 was what he said in verse 5. You can continue making that argument all you like Ben but I won't have it. They are two separate ideas. I think what is happening here is that Jesus states verse 3, and it goes way over Nicodemus' head. So Jesus "puts the cookies on the lower shelf" for him, and states something that should be much easier for him to understand. But even that goes over his head-
Jhn 3:9 Nicodemus said to Him, "How can these things be?"
Jhn 3:10 Jesus answered and said to him, "Are you the teacher of Israel and do not understand these things?
Jesus in a way is saying "you're the teacher of Israel and you aren't born again???"
That interpretation is supported by the next verse -
Jhn 3:11 "Truly, truly, I say to you, we speak of what we know and testify of what we have seen, and you do not accept our testimony.
Jhn 3:12 "If I told you earthly things and you do not believe, how will you believe if I tell you heavenly things?
Exactly my point - Jesus told has told him all he needs to know, yet Nicodemus does not believe. Why? Because he must be born again. How is it that you pass over this Ben? It's staring you right in the face...
It is no stretch to see equality between "born-from-above", and "born-of-the-Spirit". To perceive "perceive" (pun intended), the rest of the context would have to convey "God's sovereign choice". The context says "whoever believes in Him may have eternal life" (15, 16). Further, a distinction is made between those who love darkness/evil, and those who love truth. The phrasing does not convey "God chose who WOULD love evil and who WOULD love truth" --- rather, it reads as though the choice, is causal.
The choice is causal. You are stating the average view of Calvinism from an outsider's point of view. The choice is causal
within the decree, but not
apart from the decree.
Honestly I think your point is getting off topic. Unless the verse specifically pertains to verse 3 or 5 then I am not going to answer it. We are not talking about election or causality but regeneration. Yes of course they are all interwoven, which is why I want to stay focused.
You are on the right track though, that if see means perceive, then all of Calvinism is basically proven, because if regeneration must precede justification then election is true. It's good that you realize that, since that is partially why I chose this verse. I find it somewhat humorous that you state as a reason for not accepting the interpretation "perceive" is that it proves election. lol. Maybe instead of arguing against it you can try to accept it? If I can prove that is what this passage teaches, will you just turn your head and continue in error?
"Those who do evil hate the light, and do not come to the light lest their evil deeds be exposed. But he who practices truth comes to the light, that his deeds may be shown wrought in God."
Under the concept of "Sovereign-regeneration", both perception AND desire change; thus, desire to come into the light is consequential. And desire for sin, ALSO is consequential to God's sovereign choice, even if only subordinate to God's NEGLECT (not sovereignly electing and monergistically regenerating).
Verses 19-21 do not read as "consequential", but rather "causal". Do you agree that "see-PERCEIVE" necessitates alignment with "those who have not been renewed will hate the light, those who have been renewed will naturally seek the light"? So when we read "those who love evil avoid the exposure of light, those who love truth eagerly come to the light", it supports "see-ENTER".
No, no, no. You forget that God is outside of time, Ben. Is God not great enough, that when He spoke here in 19-21 that those who spoke would be swooned by the Spirit, that the words would move them and He would regenerate them and they would respond irresistably in faith? The thing you're not seeing is that in the moment, when you place faith in God, you obviously aren't aware of the regeneration or work of the Spirit. It seems like something you have done on your own. Jesus calls people to be saved, but needs not to mention that they must be regenerated. Why? Because they have no causality in their regeneration! Those who are regenerated will understand the words of Jesus. Your claim represents a misunderstanding of God and Calvinism. The verse
assumes regeneration. In fact, the entire bible assumes depravity and regeneration, much like it's own authority and authenticity.
Once again, may I say that you are getting off topic. Quoting verses that seem to promote the causal power of the human are not a proof for your view and you know it. Calvinists can easily explain away such a claim. What I specifically want to stick to is:
1. What is the kingdom of heaven?
2. Why does see mean perceive vs. enter
I gave you A.T.Robertson (linked again on request) --- can you give me any Greek commentary that supports "perceive"?
Yes, as I already have, I can give you proof that the word "idein" can mean mental or spiritual perception. However, I cannot provide a greek commentary which supports "perceive" in John 3:3. While on the surface this may make my view look bad, it actually doesn't matter. I have already mentioned this; as long as the word can possibly mean "perceive", then the context can be the decider. I have already shown how context necessitates it. I think the reason why most commentators gloss over "see" is because they don't realize the importance in what Jesus is saying, and at first glance, it seems to make sense to translate it "see". This is why in most of the greek commentaries I have read, including the one you quoted, they seem to just gloss over the verse, as though "see" is a given. It shows their lack of understanding for context and their concern for etymology only.
As I said before, if I can prove that "the kingdom of God" is not a physical place, then I have proven the point. It doesn't matter what any greek scholar says about the word,
the context necessitates it.
As I said, the NASV cross-reference on "kingdom of God", in both verses (Jn3:3 & 6), link to Matt19:24, Mt21:31, Mk9:47, Mk10:14. All of these refer to a physical place.
Wrong.
Mat 19:24 "Again I say to you, it is easier for a camel to go through the eye of a needle, than for a rich man to
enter the kingdom of God."
Mat 19:25 When the disciples heard {this,} they were very astonished and said, "Then who can be saved?"
Mat 21:31 "Which of the two did the will of his father?" They *said, "The first." Jesus *said to them, "Truly I say to you that the tax collectors and prostitutes will
get into the kingdom of God before you.
Mar 9:47 "If your eye causes you to stumble, throw it out; it is better for you to
enter the kingdom of God with one eye, than, having two eyes, to be cast into hell,
Mar 10:14 But when Jesus saw this, He was indignant and said to them, "Permit the children to come to Me; do not hinder them; for
the kingdom of God belongs to such as these.
You are reading into the passages, Ben. Because the word "enter" is used does not mean that "the kingdom of God" is physical. As I have already stated, the greek word for "enter" does not necessitate a physical entrance. It may also be added that Jesus spoke in many parables; if He did portray the kingdom of God as physical, then He was doing so that the people would understand (putting the cookies on the lower shelf). But I think His statement in Luke is pretty precise on what He actually taught the Kingdom of God is:
Luk 17:20 And when he was demanded of the Pharisees, when the kingdom of God should come, he answered them and said, The kingdom of God cometh not with observation:
Luk 17:21 Neither shall they say, Lo here! or, lo there! for, behold, the kingdom of God is within you.
within you, gr. entos humon
entos-
1) within, inside
a) within you i.e. in the midst of you
b) within you i.e. your soul
humon-
1) of yours
Here we have an emphatic statement of Christ, stating "behold, the kingdom of God is within you". If you wish to use parables and lessons of Jesus to support your view of "the kingdom of God" instead of an emphatic statement He made about it, then that is your business, but I clearly have the stronger argument and stronger support with this verse.
I still see no reason to disconnect verse 3, from verse 5.
Because two different words are used. See cannot equal enter, because that is not what "idein" means. You can say that all you like but you can't change that the word used is "idein".
Further, even if "see" should be "enter", it STILL proves my point. You believe regeneration is a result of justification. Yet we have Jesus saying that it is prior -
Jhn 3:3 Jesus answered and said to him, "Truly, truly, I say to you,
unless one is born again he cannot see/enter the kingdom of God."
If Kingdom of God is equated with salvation (as it should be), then one must be born again before he enters, correct? The word "unless" shows that entrance into the kingdom is conditional upon your being born again. This means that one must be born again before he can be justified and be saved. So your argument for see=enter does nothing for you either.
No, Matt21:31 and Mk9:47 especially say "GET there".
It's a physical place in Matt21:31 and Mk9:47 especially.
Jesus may be referring to it as an actual place so that they may understand... but Nicodemus proved that he, being a "master of Israel" didn't understand the concept, and therefore, who else would? Jesus is speaking that they may understand, and "portraying" the kingdom as a place. But He definitely is not making an emphatic statement on what the Kingdom of God is in those verses. I believe Luke 17 is the end-all on what Jesus taught the Kingdom of God actually was.
But perhaps the resolution of our discussion, is in Jn3:19-21. Do men avoid the light because they love evil, or because they have not been renewed --- and conversely do men COME to the light because they've been renewed, or because they love truth? If "see" means "perceive", then consistency requires the connected perception of "coming/avoiding light, because of renewal/non-renewal".
I don't see that; I see "avoid the light BECAUSE they love evil, and enter the light BECAUSE they love truth".
Make sense?
Yes, but either one works for my cause; if you say they avoid the light because the love evil then I will agree. If you say enter the light because they love the truth then I will agree. But I must say that no one avoids the light who is truly saved, and no one comes to the light who is evil, due to the condition of their heart and mind. It is not something that can changed by themselves-
Eph 2:1 And you
were dead in your trespasses and sins...
that is, dead before they came to know the Lord. How did they come to know the Lord?
Eph 2:4-5 But God... even when we were dead in our transgressions, made us alive together with Christ...
If that doesn't sound like an act of God, then I don't know what else to tell you Ben. Those who avoid the light are "
by nature children of wrath", and those who enter the light are those who were made alive together with Christ
when they were dead in their transgressions. One MUST be regenerated before he can enter into the light, that is, "the kingdom of God".
I believe I have nailed this point down so far that it has simply been proven and there is no pulling the nail back up. Any rejection is simply a dodging of the argument in order to continue in error. This is is what I wasnt a specific response to:
1. What Jesus meant in Luke 17, and how it relates to John 3
2. What you believe the "kingdom of God" is in light of scripture (Luke 17)
3. According to what the "kingdom of God" is, how this effects your view of regeneration in John 3.