- Jan 22, 2011
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The lady flatmate would yell at her children and then confide in me she wished she never had them :-(
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Unfortunatley the curse of the bastard is real. Because parents who unwed and fornicate their sin does actually mark the children. Thats why in the bible to refrain from fornication you marry first.
Its not other people judging its the fact that the children are conceived in sin and lust, not love, and often are unwanted. If one parent is saved the the children can be made clean and holy and ideally both parents should be saved to raise godly children.
jesus loved all children thats why he will adopt those whos parents are unsaved because they have more problems than those from saved parents. When children sense they are unwanted and rejected often they will rebel.
I understand that. But many Christians (catholic, orthodox and most evangelicals) sincerely believe that no civil divorce can end a marriage. Ever. So the person that wants to continue to follow the Lord are forced into lifelong celibacy whether they have that charismatic gift or not. Otherwise, if they get married they are committing adultery.Because she married a cheating man? Is this to punish her for making a stupid decision?
What about the man that marries a cheating wife. Same thing? Wait till the cheating wife dies? I dont think that happens. Thats why ppl divorce, so they can be free to marry other ppl.
that is what SHOULD happen, but sometimes the emotional and covenantal injury is so great that forgiveness can take years.For christians that marry each other, and if one cheats youd think the offending party would repent and the other forgive.
That is unbiblical. Illegitimate children are specifically called out in the OT.There are no illegitimate children.
Sounds like so much "PC" garbage to me. "Don't call them names because it may make them feel bad."Calling them illegitimate and especially b*stard is perpetuating the problem. Unfortunately people do judge them and often define them by that. Don't call them since you know that Jesus loves them all. He never condemned the children for the sins of their parents. While they may suffer some consequences, it doesn't mean that we have to treat them a certain way or call them a certain name.
Then why did God say what He did in Deut 23.2? "Cannot enter the assembly of the Lord for 10 generations."By no means should they bear a mark upon them because their parents did not marry before having the child.
Sounds like so much "PC" garbage to me. "Don't call them names because it may make them feel bad."
Boo hoo.
That is unbiblical. Illegitimate children are specifically called out in the OT.
Deuteronomy 23:2 No one of illegitimate birth shall enter the assembly of the Lord; none of his descendants, even to the tenth generation, shall enter the assembly of the Lord.
Hebrews 12:8 But if you are without discipline, of which all have become partakers, then you are illegitimate children and not sons.
What I know is that God makes a special case of illegitimate (Heb momzer) in scripture. I also know that when a covenant is updated/renewed/replaced, anything not specifically adjusted or superseded in the new is carried over as-is from the old. Since Deut 23.2 is not specifically addressed in the New Covenant; I have to take it that it is still in force. And that affects me personally because at about age 40, my mom told me that I was the product of a date rape.As Christians, we are called to love all, especially children. Jesus himself said that children do not bear the sin of the parents. Would you disagree?
Not so. It was a product of someone who "played the harlot," i.e. a loose morals Jewish girl.Are you aware of the cultural understanding of illegitimate birth in the Old Testament? It was anyone whose mother was not Jewish.
What I know is that God makes a special case of illegitimate (Heb momzer) in scripture. I also know that when a covenant is updated/renewed/replaced, anything not specifically adjusted or superseded in the new is carried over as-is from the old. Since Deut 23.2 is not specifically addressed in the New Covenant; I have to take it that it is still in force. And that affects me personally because at about age 40, my mom told me that I was the product of a date rape.
I had always wondered why I could never get a straight answer on the wedding date of my parents from either of them.
Not so. It was a product of someone who "played the harlot," i.e. a loose morals Jewish girl.
Jesus Himself was accused of being a momzer. (John 8) How was Mary NOT Jewish?
What about Ezekiel 18 and Jeremiah 31? It seems that Deuteronomy 23 addresses the covenant with Israel while Ezekiel 18 and Jeremiah 31 are referencing sin and whether it is or is not transferred to children. Jeremiah 31 even says that it is a new covenant where the saying ‘The parents eat sour grapes, and the children’s teeth are set on edge’ is no longer true.Then why did God say what He did in Deut 23.2? "Cannot enter the assembly of the Lord for 10 generations."
That is a more modern understanding of the word, NOT how it was used in the first century and before.Mamzer isn't strictly equivalent with the English usage of illegitimate. If your mother was not married at the time of her rape, then you (Biblically) would not be considered to be a mamzer. Mamzer - Wikipedia
I am not sure how that works under the New Covenant.So my question remains: What do you consider to be the modern day application of not being able to enter the assembly of the Lord for 10 generations?
So I am a momzer by your definition.A child of an adultery was considered to be mamzer.
That said, I still have my same question. Do you believe you can't be Christian because of your parentage? I believe that was superseded in the New Testament,
So I am a momzer by your definition.
My dad was still married to his first wife at the time of the incident. (my mom did not know he had been married before)
I guess that boils down to what you mean by "Christian."
Since there is no specific language superseding this specific statement, I do not see it as superseded.