The promises of the old covenant were a part of the CONDITIONAL agreement: If Israel obeyed, they would receive blessings (Deuteronomy 28:1-14). If Israel disobeyed, they would receive curses (Deuteronomy 28:15-68). After the blessings and curses had been poured out, if Israel returned to the Lord, He would restore them from captivity and bring them back from the land (Deuteronomy 30:1-5).
For example, A father promises to give his kid a cookie IF the kid cleans his room. The kid refuses to the clean his room. As a result, the father does not give his kid a cookie.
The promise of receiving the cookie is CONDITIONAL upon the kid cleaning the room. The father is in no way unfaithful to his promise for not giving the cookie when the kid did not clean his room.
So it is with the old covenant agreement. The promises of the old covenant were CONDITIONAL upon Israel's obedience to God. However, the old covenant agreement was made obsolete because of the fault found on the side of the people to keep their end of the agreement (Hebrews 8:7-8).
The author of Hebrews states the old covenant was taken away and made obsolete (Hebrews 8:13 and Hebrews 10:9). The author of Hebrews states the old covenant was only until the time of reformation (Hebrews 9:10). Paul states the that Israel was locked up under the custody of the law until faith in Christ was revealed (Galatians 3:23).
Being "under the law", or in other words, being bound to the agreement that one will obey the law through works is required in order to receive the conditional blessings of the law (Deuteronomy 28:1-14, Romans 10:5).
Again, the argument is not what specific laws have changed, been removed, or have remained from the 613 commands given by Moses. That is another topic for another thread.
The argument is that the old covenant AGREEMENT between God and the nation of Israel was made obsolete and taken away by Christ. The agreement was between 2 parties: Israel and God. If Israel did their part by obeying all 613 commands of moses, then God would do his part by blessing them with earthly blessings (Deuteronomy 28:1-14). If Israel did not do their part and did not follow all 613 commands of Moses, then God would do His part and curse Israel (Deuteronomy 28:15-68). If Israel would then do their part after curses had been poured out and return to God, then God would do His part and restore them from captivity and bring them back to the land (Deuteronomy 30:1-5).
God's part in the agreement was always CONDITIONAL upon Israel's part: obedience.
The new testament declares the old covenant, which was an agreement for Israel to do their part and God to do His part, was made obsolete and taken away.
The old covenant was a conditional agreement. If Israel promised to follow 613 commands of moses then God would promise to bless them. If Israel disobeyed the 613 commands of moses then God would promise to curse Israel. If Israel would turn back to God after he outpouring of blessings and curses, then God promised to restore Israel.
This conditional agreement known as that the old covenant was made obsolete and taken away at the cross. It was superseded by the new covenant, which has better promises (Hebrews 8:6).
Israel, Jews and grafted in Gentiles, was already a nation in the 1st century.
God is responsible for the rise and fall of all earthly kingdoms.
As stated in the old covenant agreement, if Israel repented and turned the Lord, AFTER the blessings and curses had been poured out, then God would restore Israel from captivity and return them to the land (Deuteronomy 30:1-5).
Daniel 9 and Nehemiah 1 are evidences that show Israel repenting while in exile.
Jeremiah explicitly prophesies that it would be after the 70 years of Babylonian exile that Israel would turn to God and he would restore them from captivity and bring them back to the land.
Thus, after the 70 years and when Israel had repented as evidenced by Daniel and Nehemiah, Israel was restored from captivity and returned to the land. This is substantiated by the accounts of Ezra and nehemiah. This is even substantiated by psalm 85, which was written post Babylonian exile.
If the divorced and exiled northern kingdom was no longer God's people, which resulted with them mixing with the surrounding nations (hosea 7:8) and being ousted from the covenant, then what would become of those offspring over 700 years leading up to the 1st century? They would become as gentiles.
Correct. Circumcision not by human hands as performed by Christ was occurring in the 1st century. The 1st century took place after Israel had returned from to the land from Babylonian exile.
We have to understand that the law was only a shadow of Christ (Hebrews 10:1, colossians 2:17). The law the type, Christ the antitype.
Thus Israel receiving the curses of the law through the Assyrian/Babylonian exiles are a shadow of Christ receiving the curses of the law on Israel's behalf (galatians 3:13-14).
Israel being restored from captivity and being brought back to the land after the curses had been poured out through the Assyrian/Babylonian exiles is a shadow of those in Christ being set free (Galatiants 5:1) and being gathered to him in one body (John 11:52).
Thus, I would argue that Ezekiel's prophecy had immediate context in its type/shadow (Israel returning from Assyrian/Babylonian exile), but also a prophetic context in its antitype/reality (Christ setting his people free from sin and them gathering to one body). Thus, while there was spiritual death leading up to and during the Babylonian exile, there was spiritual death leading up to the cross.
Israel repented under the their part of the deal in the old covenant and God returned them to land after the 70 years of Babylonian punishment as part of His side of the agreement.
However, the NT is very clear that this agreement was made obsolete.
Jews have lived in the land of Israel prior to 1948 for last 2,000 years. Israel being recognized as an independent country by other nations is not a requirement to fulfill prophecy, as Israel was not recognized by Persia as an independent nation upon returning from Babylonian exile.
As paul states, a jew is not one outwardly but only if they are circumcised in the heart.
Romans 2:28-29 A man is not a Jew because he is one outwardly, nor is circumcision only outward and physical. No, a man is a Jew because he is one inwardly, and circumcision is a matter of the heart, by the Spirit, not by the written code. Such a man’s praise does not come from men, but from God.
Please provide NT scripture that confirms Christ will reign upon the earth in a physical temple in order to substantiated your interpretation of the OT.
“A father promises to give his kid a cookie IF the kid cleans his room. The kid refuses to the clean his room. As a result, the father does not give his kid a cookie.
The promise of receiving the cookie is CONDITIONAL upon the kid cleaning the room. The father is in no way unfaithful to his promise for not giving the cookie when the kid did not clean his room.
But the blessing of being given the cookie is not necessarily lost to the child forever. If the child changes his mind and cleans his room like his father told him to do, he can still be rewarded the cookie.
In the same way, the Israelites have not lost out on the earthly blessings that they were promised as a reward of faithfulness and devotion to God, yet those promises did not cease with the Old Covenant. They simply will meet their fulfillment in the New Covenant as a testimony of God’s faithfulness in keeping His promises even when we are not always faithful to Him.
“The author of Hebrews states the old covenant was taken away and made obsolete (Hebrews 8:13 and Hebrews 10:9). The author of Hebrews states the old covenant was only until the time of reformation (Hebrews 9:10). Paul states the that Israel was locked up under the custody of the law until faith in Christ was revealed (Galatians 3:23).
Being "under the law", or in other words, being bound to the agreement that one will obey the law through works is required in order to receive the conditional blessings of the law…"
But now those blessings are given upon acceptance of the New Covenant instead of the Old.
“The new testament declares the old covenant, which was an agreement for Israel to do their part and God to do His part, was made obsolete and taken away…If Israel would turn back to God after he outpouring of blessings and curses, then God promised to restore Israel.
This conditional agreement known as that the old covenant was made obsolete and taken away at the cross. It was superseded by the new covenant, which has better promises (Hebrews 8:6).”
The promises that God has made under the New Covenant do not cancel out those promises made beforehand. Instead, the Jews receive a double portion in that along with their earthly blessings receive also the blessings that everyone else in Christ receives as well.
“Israel, Jews and grafted in Gentiles, was already a nation in the 1st century.”
The Church is not a nation in the same sense that Israel is in that the Church is made part of an eternal Kingdom into which the earthly nation of Israel is destined to be made part of as well.
“Ezekiel prophesied that God would dwell with his people and God would be their God and they His people. Paul has this being fulfilled in the 1st century.
Ezekiel prophesied that the northern kingdom and southern kingdom would be reunited. Hosea parallels this prophecy. Paul quotes hosea 1:10 as being fulfilled in the 1st century with the inclusion of Jew and gentiles into the vessels of mercy (romans 9:24-26). Thus if hosea 1:10-11 was beingfulfilled in the 1st century, then so was Ezekiel 37:22.”
The prophecies of Ezekiel and Hosea are not entirely about the same things in that Ezekiel focuses specifically on the nation of Israel. Hosea, while focused mainly on Israel, invites the Gentiles to be reconciled with their Maker as well. Hosea is not the only set of Old Testament scriptures that expresses God’s desire for all people, Jew and Gentile, to know Him and experience His love and mercy.
“God is responsible for the rise and fall of all earthly kingdoms.”
But what other nation, other than Israel, has been displaced, scattered, and then again restored?
“As stated in the old covenant agreement, if Israel repented and turned the Lord, AFTER the blessings and curses had been poured out, then God would restore Israel from captivity and return them to the land (Deuteronomy 30:1-5). Daniel 9 and Nehemiah 1 are evidences that show Israel repenting while in exile.
You forget that not all the returning Jews had yet set their hearts to seek the Lord as is also mentioned in the book of Nehemiah and even more notably so, the prophets Zechariah and Malachi.
“God called the divorced and exiled northern kingdom "no longer his people and He no longer their God." If the divorced and exiled northern kingdom was no longer God's people, which resulted with them mixing with the surrounding nations (hosea 7:8) and being ousted from the covenant, then what would become of those offspring over 700 years leading up to the 1st century? They would become as gentiles.
None of the Israelites were ousted from the Covenant. They left the Covenant. If the northern kingdom had been divorced of God, it is because they divorced themselves from Him first. Nevertheless, He has left the door open for they and the rest of the Jews to be reconciled to Him.
They never became as Gentiles. They still retained their identity.
Those who may be unaware of their Jewish ancestry but are somehow made aware of it then rediscover the identity that they had all along.
“Correct. Circumcision not by human hands as performed by Christ was occurring in the 1st century. The 1st century took place after Israel had returned from to the land from Babylonian exile.”
I would not call the first century the generation in which the hearts of the Jews had undergone a spiritual circumcision. Most of the people of Israel ended up rejecting their Messiah and remained uncircumcised in their hearts.
“Thus Israel receiving the curses of the law through the Assyrian/Babylonian exiles are a shadow of Christ receiving the curses of the law on Israel's behalf (galatians 3:13-14).”
I do not because Israel was punished for their own sins and not for the sins of anyone else. Christ on the other hand suffered for the sins of all mankind and yet Himself was sinless which He had to be in order to be that perfect sacrifice required for the forgiveness of the sins of those who place their trust in the sacrifice made by Christ on their behalf in order that they might be saved from damnation and reconciled with their Maker.
"Israel being restored from captivity and being brought back to the land after the curses had been poured out through the Assyrian/Babylonian exiles is a shadow of those in Christ being set free (Galatiants 5:1) and being gathered to him in one body (John 11:52).”
I cannot say that I dispute this much of it.
“Thus, I would argue that Ezekiel's prophecy had immediate context in its type/shadow (Israel returning from Assyrian/Babylonian exile), but also a prophetic context in its antitype/reality (Christ setting his people free from sin and them gathering to one body). Thus, while there was spiritual death leading up to and during the Babylonian exile, there was spiritual death leading up to the cross.”
Applied as it may be in that sense, Ezekiel’s prophecy was written in a way meant to be taken literally.
“Israel repented under the their part of the deal in the old covenant and God returned them to land after the 70 years of Babylonian punishment as part of His side of the agreement. However, the NT is very clear that this agreement was made obsolete.”
But the promised blessings were not canceled alongside the Old Covenant. If that were the case, God would be breaking promises that He has made which is why, in order to show Himself faithful in keeping His promises, (Heb. 10:23) He must fulfill all promises and all declarations He has made exactly as He has said.
Jews have lived in the land of Israel prior to 1948 for last 2,000 years.
And why do you think that is? Should that in and of itself not serve as evidence of God’s promise that He would not make a full end of His people or the nation of Israel?
“As paul states, a jew is not one outwardly but only if they are circumcised in the heart.
Romans 2:28-29 A man is not a Jew because he is one outwardly, nor is circumcision only outward and physical. No, a man is a Jew because he is one inwardly, and circumcision is a matter of the heart, by the Spirit, not by the written code. Such a man’s praise does not come from men, but from God.”
You have misquoted Paul in your statement. Paul did say that a man can be a Jew outwardly, but that does not make him one spiritually.
“Please provide NT scripture that confirms Christ will reign upon the earth in a physical temple in order to substantiated your interpretation of the OT.”
There are passages in Ezekiel chapters 40-47 that at least indicate that this is the case as far as the forth coming millennial reign is concerned. The New Testament does not have as much to say about the Millennial Reign as the Old Testament does. The most we read about the Millennial Reign is in Revelation chapter 20.
If we want to find out what the Millennial Reign under Christ will be like, that requires not only looking at New Testament scriptures, but also Old Testament scriptures as well. In other words, we have to look at the full counsel of scripture on the matter from beginning to end.