Communion and Eschatology

[grafted branch]

I haven’t seen this topic discussed so I would like to see how others deal with this.

1 Corinthians 11:26 For as often as ye eat this bread, and drink this cup, ye do shew the Lord’s death till he come.​

I tend to lean toward the preterits side but this is a problem I have with it. If there was a coming of the Lord in 70 AD then I would think that there would be some churches that don’t have communion, but I personally don’t know of any. Partial preterits might say 1 Corinthians 11:26 was pointing to the final coming but this verse doesn’t seem to lend itself to more than one coming.

The Amil view doesn’t seem to have any issues with this because there is only one more coming of the Lord and it’s the last day.

I’m not sure about Premils if they think communion should stops after the rapture or not, but I would think that communion would not be observed in the millennium if their view is correct.


I’m not trying to prove any position right or wrong, I would just like to see what others think about this.

 

[Abaxvahl]

I haven’t seen this topic discussed so I would like to see how others deal with this.

1 Corinthians 11:26 For as often as ye eat this bread, and drink this cup, ye do shew the Lord’s death till he come.​

I tend to lean toward the preterits side but this is a problem I have with it. If there was a coming of the Lord in 70 AD then I would think that there would be some churches that don’t have communion, but I personally don’t know of any. Partial preterits might say 1 Corinthians 11:26 was pointing to the final coming but this verse doesn’t seem to lend itself to more than one coming.

The Amil view doesn’t seem to have any issues with this because there is only one more coming of the Lord and it’s the last day.

I’m not sure about Premils if they think communion should stops after the rapture or not, but I would think that communion would not be observed in the millennium if their view is correct.


I’m not trying to prove any position right or wrong, I would just like to see what others think about this.

I myself am leaning towards partial preterism (an extreme form that is), and I simply see the verse as the Final Coming, for that is logically when it will cease, nothing else it could be. The very by itself does not need to demonstrate this because other passages of Scripture speak of it.

 

[3 Resurrections]

Partial preterits might say 1 Corinthians 11:26 was pointing to the final coming but this verse doesn’t seem to lend itself to more than one coming.

That text doesn't prove OR disprove a third coming, either way. Those like myself that see scripture teaching a third coming of Christ in our future have no problem with the communion verse. Those in the era approaching AD 70 used that rite to show the Lord's death until He came back then, and those in our generation use that same rite to show the Lord's death until He comes yet again for a third time. Not a problem.

 

[keras]

1 Corinthians 11:26 For as often as ye eat this bread, and drink this cup, ye do shew the Lord’s death till he come.

This is another proof of the false 'rapture to heaven' theory.
We will continue to partake of Communion until Jesus Returns. Which will be after all of Revelation is fulfilled, up to Revelation 19:10

 

[Yeshua HaDerekh]

Your problem is, WHAT IS COMMUNION in its correct original context as instituted by Yeshua? Once you understand that, you will see all these posts are moot...

 

[Carl Emerson]

I haven’t seen this topic discussed so I would like to see how others deal with this.

1 Corinthians 11:26 For as often as ye eat this bread, and drink this cup, ye do shew the Lord’s death till he come.​

I tend to lean toward the preterits side but this is a problem I have with it. If there was a coming of the Lord in 70 AD then I would think that there would be some churches that don’t have communion, but I personally don’t know of any. Partial preterits might say 1 Corinthians 11:26 was pointing to the final coming but this verse doesn’t seem to lend itself to more than one coming.

The Amil view doesn’t seem to have any issues with this because there is only one more coming of the Lord and it’s the last day.

I’m not sure about Premils if they think communion should stops after the rapture or not, but I would think that communion would not be observed in the millennium if their view is correct.


I’m not trying to prove any position right or wrong, I would just like to see what others think about this.

I think 'ye' refers to the Body of Christ. As long as the body functions, He will be remembered.

One must ask then, when the Body will cease to function ???

Mark 14:25
Truly I say to you, I will not drink of the fruit of the vine again, until that day when I drink it, new, in the kingdom of God.”

 

[grafted branch]

I myself am leaning towards partial preterism (an extreme form that is), and I simply see the verse as the Final Coming, for that is logically when it will cease, nothing else it could be. The very by itself does not need to demonstrate this because other passages of Scripture speak of it.

What other passages are you referring to?

 

[grafted branch]

That text doesn't prove OR disprove a third coming, either way. Those like myself that see scripture teaching a third coming of Christ in our future have no problem with the communion verse. Those in the era approaching AD 70 used that rite to show the Lord's death until He came back then, and those in our generation use that same rite to show the Lord's death until He comes yet again for a third time. Not a problem.

I agree that this single passage isn’t going to change anyone’s view but if someone was a full preterits (which is not allowed in this area of the forum) they should not be having communion. A partial preterits who was alive in the first century might have an issue with whether to continue having communion or not. I haven’t studied the ECF’s, do you know if this was an issue that they discussed back then?

 

[grafted branch]

Your problem is, WHAT IS COMMUNION in its correct original context as instituted by Yeshua? Once you understand that, you will see all these posts are moot...

So are you saying that if someone understands communion they will understand the book of Revelation?

 

[Abaxvahl]

What other passages are you referring to?

The whole of Matthew 24 speaks of the coming in Judgment on Jerusalem, and the very end of Matthew 25 speaks of the Final Judgment and the Life to Come, the final return of the Lord.

 

[grafted branch]

I think 'ye' refers to the Body of Christ. As long as the body functions, He will be remembered.

One must ask then, when the Body will cease to function ???

Mark 14:25
Truly I say to you, I will not drink of the fruit of the vine again, until that day when I drink it, new, in the kingdom of God.”

That’s a fair point, and I would add that depending on how someone defines the Body of Christ may have implications also. Some people use Matthew 18:20 to suggest that it only takes 2 or 3 people, so until we get down to the last believer the Body of Christ still exists.

Perhaps some Premils would say that the Body of Christ doesn’t exist anymore in the millennium. I’m not Premil but that would be a good point for them to explain.

 

[grafted branch]

The whole of Matthew 24 speaks of the coming in Judgment on Jerusalem, and the very end of Matthew 25 speaks of the Final Judgment and the Life to Come, the final return of the Lord.

Ok, I think I see what your saying; if someone was alive in the first century and understood Matthew 24 - 25 they would then understand that 70 AD was not the final coming and therefore continue having communion.

 

[3 Resurrections]

I haven’t studied the ECF’s, do you know if this was an issue that they discussed back then?

As of now, it's not an issue that I have seen addressed within the ECF writings. Someone else may have, however.

 

[grafted branch]

As of now, it's not an issue that I have seen addressed within the ECF writings. Someone else may have, however.

Thanks for your response, my line of thinking is that since the first coming of Christ brought about dramatic changes such as the animal sacrifices no longer being valid; that people would’ve discussed what changes occurred at the second coming (besides the destruction of Jerusalem). In your opinion were there any changes, besides what was obsolete vanishing away, which occurred in 70 AD?

 

[Carl Emerson]

I think 'ye' refers to the Body of Christ. As long as the body functions, He will be remembered.

One must ask then, when the Body will cease to function ???

Mark 14:25
Truly I say to you, I will not drink of the fruit of the vine again, until that day when I drink it, new, in the kingdom of God.”

Further to the above - I believe the Body of Christ remains in eternity with Jesus.

 

[grafted branch]

Further to the above - I believe the Body of Christ remains in eternity with Jesus.

I see the Body of Christ as the bride of Christ and this marriage will last forever.

I’m not sure that the Eucharist will last forever because of 1 Corinthians 11:26. Do you see a time when the Eucharist will end?

 

[Carl Emerson]

I see the Body of Christ as the bride of Christ and this marriage will last forever.

I’m not sure that the Eucharist will last forever because of 1 Corinthians 11:26. Do you see a time when the Eucharist will end?

I am not sure that this verse carries the meaning of the Eucharist ceasing - The Kingdom has no end and He is waiting to drink with us in the Kingdom to come.

 

[Yeshua HaDerekh]

I see the Body of Christ as the bride of Christ and this marriage will last forever.

I’m not sure that the Eucharist will last forever because of 1 Corinthians 11:26. Do you see a time when the Eucharist will end?

The MARRIAGE supper of the Lamb

 

[claninja]

I haven’t seen this topic discussed so I would like to see how others deal with this.

1 Corinthians 11:26 For as often as ye eat this bread, and drink this cup, ye do shew the Lord’s death till he come.​

I tend to lean toward the preterits side but this is a problem I have with it. If there was a coming of the Lord in 70 AD then I would think that there would be some churches that don’t have communion, but I personally don’t know of any. Partial preterits might say 1 Corinthians 11:26 was pointing to the final coming but this verse doesn’t seem to lend itself to more than one coming.

The Amil view doesn’t seem to have any issues with this because there is only one more coming of the Lord and it’s the last day.

I’m not sure about Premils if they think communion should stops after the rapture or not, but I would think that communion would not be observed in the millennium if their view is correct.


I’m not trying to prove any position right or wrong, I would just like to see what others think about this.

The 2 strongest positions for the partial preterist position I believe are either:

1.) If the coming of Christ in the verse is in regards to the judgement of Jerusalem, then we can look at “until” (Greek achri) not necessarily as a termination point, but simply as a reference point.

for example, the same Greek word for until is used in acts 7:18. Does this mean that the Israelites stopped multiplying and increasing when a new king arose who did not know Joseph? No, we know the Israelites continued to multiply and increase even after that. Therefore, “until” in 1 Corinthians 11:26, could simply be a reference point and not a termination point.

acts 7:17-18 But as the time of the promise drew near, which God had granted to Abraham, the people increased and multiplied in Egypt 18until there arose over Egypt another king who did not know Joseph

2.) If the coming of Christ is not a reference to the destruction of Israel but about the future to us, literal world ending, coming of Christ, then “until” could definitely be a termination point.

 

[grafted branch]

The 2 strongest positions for the partial preterist position I believe are either:

1.) If the coming of Christ in the verse is in regards to the judgement of Jerusalem, then we can look at “until” (Greek achri) not necessarily as a termination point, but simply as a reference point.

for example, the same Greek word for until is used in acts 7:18. Does this mean that the Israelites stopped multiplying and increasing when a new king arose who did not know Joseph? No, we know the Israelites continued to multiply and increase even after that. Therefore, “until” in 1 Corinthians 11:26, could simply be a reference point and not a termination point.

acts 7:17-18 But as the time of the promise drew near, which God had granted to Abraham, the people increased and multiplied in Egypt 18until there arose over Egypt another king who did not know Joseph

2.) If the coming of Christ is not a reference to the destruction of Israel but about the future to us, literal world ending, coming of Christ, then “until” could definitely be a termination point.

Thanks for that explanation; I completely agree the key here is the word until <891>. Would you say that the same word “until” <891> in Romans 11:25 should be viewed in the same manner with 2 possible meanings?

Roman 11:25 For I would not, brethren, that ye should be ignorant of this mystery, lest ye should be wise in your own conceits; that blindness in part is happened to Israel, until the fullness of the Gentiles be come in.