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As "before" is an adverb of time, it (the word and concept) couldn't exist before time.
That's right. "Real time" of t=0 begins at a certain point. The 'before' is a kind of hand waving about the way the physics could be continuing from the imaginary time which was already in existence as best I understand. I haven't tried to go far into understanding that (I mean the math and all the parts), because there are so many competing theories.
We talk about "before" time, because we need to use language to communicate ideas. And our language kind of pre-assumes temporal conditions.
We don't have proper words to describe an environment where time or space (as we know it) doesn't exist.
How would you phrase the question "what happened before the big bang?" without using the word "before" in a way that makes sense?
Or how would you phrase the question "what caused the big bang?" without using the word "cause"? Because "cause" again implies temporal conditions. More specifically, a sequence of events: effects happen after causes.
How can you be sure it's 'nonsensical'. According to Einstein "spacetime' exists in the presence of matter and energy, and energy cannot be created or destroyed, so AFAIK any "bang" would simply be a conversion of energy from one state to another and "spacetime" has always existed because energy has always existed.I think it's fine to use those words as long as it is understood that in essence, the words "cause" and "before" are nonsensical in that context, but that we pretty much have use them due to the limitations of our language.
(this comment was written without watching the Hawkings clip and while not even knowing what he has to say about it)
Something had to change/time for inflation to occur.
Nothingness?
How can you be sure it's 'nonsensical'.
According to Einstein "spacetime' exists in the presence of matter and energy, and energy cannot be created or destroyed, so AFAIK any "bang" would simply be a conversion of energy from one state to another and "spacetime" has always existed because energy has always existed.
I'm not. But what is known, is that space and time are properties/part of our universe. If you remove the universe, you remove space and time.
So time, as we know it, is no more.
Unless the total energy of the universe is 0, off course.
Then nothing needs any creating or destruction.
I've seen it explained once as saying that "out of 0, you can create +1 and -1. or +100 billion million and -100 billion million".
For the life of me, I couldn't repeat the technical physics stuff. But it made sense to me when reading it.
The general concensus either way, seems to be that at some point, the universe did not exist.
If that's the case, then time as we know it didn't either.
Consensus also seems to be that T = 0 was a thing. So there's no "before" that. Whatever that means.
It seems as any way one wishes to approach this, it will be clouded in assumptions.
Which is kind of logical, since we have no confirmed origins theory for the universe.
As you should know, using energy doesn't destroy it, it just converts it to a less useful form. For example, each relatively useful photon in the visible range hitting the Earth is eventually converted to around twenty relatively useless infrared photons radiating away from Earth, having done work.You'd still have to explain our use of energy over time in "zero" energy universe.
Not really; mass distorts spacetime, effectively putting energy into it; the gravitational field has energy. By analogy, when you put a weight onto a trampoline, the trampoline is distorted, storing energy.That essentially violates the whole concept of GR because gravity isn't energy in GR anymore than a hill or valley is energy. It's just a geometric feature. Even if you did that, you'd end up with an energy use over time that is not explained either.
The point is pretty simple: back when you thought energy was conserved, there was a reason why you thought that, namely time-translation invariance. A fancy way of saying “the background on which particles and forces evolve, as well as the dynamical rules governing their motions, are fixed, not changing with time.” But in general relativity that’s simply no longer true. Einstein tells us that space and time are dynamical, and in particular that they can evolve with time. When the space through which particles move is changing, the total energy of those particles is not conserved.
... a lot of folks would want to say “energy is conserved in general relativity, it’s just that you have to include the energy of the gravitational field along with the energy of matter and radiation and so on.” Which seems pretty sensible at face value.
As you should know, using energy doesn't destroy it, it just converts it to a less useful form.
For example, each relatively useful photon in the visible range hitting the Earth is eventually converted to around twenty relatively useless infrared photons radiating away from Earth, having done work.
Not really; mass distorts spacetime, effectively putting energy into it;
the gravitational field has energy.
By analogy, when you put a weight onto a trampoline, the trampoline is distorted, storing energy.
As it happens, energy isn't conserved under GR unless you include gravitational field energy, so you can't have one without the other.
As Sean Carroll says in his blog:
Obviously.In order to 'use' energy you have to have some to start with.
Not sure what you mean; the answer probably involves entropy, but you'll have to explain what you mean.I'm also unclear how using and converting the energy that resulted in a big bang would have converted it to a "less useful" form.
Nobody knows; I like the idea that something preceded the big bang.... my point is where did the energy to create that photon and transfer energy and do work come from if not energy that existed prior to a big bang?
As Wheeler said, "Spacetime tells matter how to move; matter tells spacetime how to curve". The curvature of spacetime is in counterbalance to the energy of mass.It would take energy to put energy into something.
You may feel it's arbitrary, but that's how it works - this may help explain:Perhaps, but it's not "negative" energy. The sign is arbitrary in the sense that I could look at two distant objects and treat the distance between the two objects as a form of potential energy that converts to kinetic energy at the point of impact.
Yes; it was an analogy. The opposing forces cancel, so one could consider the energy of each to be working in opposition. Negative in the sense that each works in opposition of the other.In that case you're storing *positive* potential energy.
Fortunately, what you think isn't relevant; see the discussion of the “energy-momentum conservation” function in Carroll's article.I think that's a bit of misconception about GR based on the way "space expansion" and 'dark energy' are dealt with in LCDM rather than a function of GR itself.
See above.*Without* evoking space expansion or dark energy, how can you demonstrate that energy isn't conserved, or explain how it's not conserved?
Matter fields were the result of symmetry-breaking, which releases energy rather than requiring it. The use of energy over time is a question of entropy and the degrading of energy, as already explained. When you sum the energy of the gravitational field and matter, etc., treating gravity as negative, you get zero; so you don't need lots of energy to start a universe. YMMV, of course.No matter how you look at it, you're back to explaining the energy that is required to separate all the mass from what was presumed to be a "near singularity" thingy, and the use of energy over time. As long as you treat the energy as positive preexisting energy energy, it all adds up perfectly. If you start with nothing, you always have nothing and no energy to use to separate objects or to use over time.
Obviously.
Not sure what you mean; the answer probably involves entropy, but you'll have to explain what you mean.
Nobody knows; I like the idea that something preceded the big bang.
As Wheeler said, "Spacetime tells matter how to move; matter tells spacetime how to curve". The curvature of spacetime is in counterbalance to the energy of mass.
You may feel it's arbitrary, but that's how it works - this may help explain:
The strength of the gravitational attraction between two objects represents the amount of gravitational energy in the field which attracts them towards each other. When they are infinitely far apart, the gravitational attraction and hence energy approach zero.
Your analogy is incoherent as stated - distance is not energy;
Yes; it was an analogy. The opposing forces cancel, so one could consider the energy of each to be working in opposition. Negative in the sense that each works in opposition of the other.
Matter fields were the result of symmetry-breaking, which releases energy rather than requiring it. The use of energy over time is a question of entropy and the degrading of energy, as already explained. When you sum the energy of the gravitational field and matter, etc., treating gravity as negative, you get zero; so you don't need lots of energy to start a universe. YMMV, of course.
God is outside of time, he has no beginning and He has no end. He is the Alpha and the Omega, He knows the end from the beginning. He writes the book of our life before we are even born. He has all of the plans. He give us our gifts, talents and abilities.
Really? So when the gravitational force is zero the potential energy is infinite? Can you explain how that works?The attraction might be zero at infinity, but the *potential energy* is infinite, not zero.
So, by your suggestion above, objects starting a large distance apart (gravitational force effectively zero) would have extremely large (though not infinite) potential energy, which would be converted into extremely large kinetic energy as they come together... So two pin-heads coming together a few light-years apart would eventually collide with the kinetic energy of, say, black holes colliding? If not, why not?As the objects move toward each other, that positive potential energy is converted into kinetic energy.
OK; so what's the value of potential energy per mile? How much PE in 10 miles, for example?Sure it is. Distance is absolutely potential energy.
I can see what you're trying to say, but you're making basic mistakes.If I start *on the surface* and a use energy to launch myself away from the surface, I store positive kinetic energy into positive potential energy in the form of distance. That potential energy is converted right back into kinetic energy when I come back to Earth.
This is too incoherent to comment on.If you start with mass all clumped together in your near singularity bang thingy, you end up with a curvature around that singularity that will require energy to overcome. In theory that energy is found in the preexisting inflation field. It's easy to just treat the whole thing a positive energy from the start and then it all makes sense. There's really no need to treat curvature as a form of energy, it's just a geometric feature like a hill.
Really? So when the gravitational force is zero the potential energy is infinite? Can you explain how that works?
The potential energy is not distance; it varies non-linearly with distance from the centre of mass, and is measured from an arbitrary zero point, so it can be positive or negative.