Dig4truth said in post #596:
There are two phrases that is being used. One is "put away" and the other is "cirtificate of divorce".
Note that the original Greek word (G0630) translated as to "put away" in verses like Mark 10:11-12 means to divorce. That's why the same Greek word is translated elsewhere as "divorced" (Matthew 5:32b).
Under the New Covenant, a husband isn't to divorce his wife (1 Corinthians 7:11b), and a wife isn't to divorce her husband (1 Corinthians 7:10). If a wife does divorce her husband, she must remain unmarried or be reconciled to her husband (1 Corinthians 7:11). Regarding becoming reconciled, a Christian must always completely forgive everyone who has wronged him or her in any way (Mark 11:25), no matter how great the wrong and no matter how many times a wrong has been committed (Matthew 18:21-35). For if a Christian refuses to forgive anyone for anything, God will refuse to forgive that Christian for his or her own sins (Mark 11:26).
If a husband divorces a valid wife and marries another woman, he's committing adultery (Mark 10:11). And if a wife divorces a valid husband and marries another man, she's committing adultery (Mark 10:12). The exception for fornication (as distinguished from adultery) in Matthew 19:9 permits a husband to divorce a valid wife for having had pre-marital sex, and to marry another woman without his committing adultery. But this applies only to cases where a husband doesn't discover until after he's married that his newlywed wife isn't a virgin (cf. Deuteronomy 22:14, Matthew 1:19). There's no such pre-marital-sex exception granted to a wife. Also, there's no pre-marital-sex exception granted to a man who marries a divorced woman. If a man marries a woman divorced from a valid husband for any reason, he's committing adultery (Luke 16:18b).
1 Corinthians 7:15 means a Christian spouse isn't under the bondage of having to keep together a valid marriage to a non-Christian when the non-Christian is determined to get a divorce. But 1 Corinthians 7:15 doesn't mean a Christian wife, after being divorced by a non-Christian, yet valid, husband, can then marry someone else. For if a man marries a woman divorced from a valid husband, he's committing adultery (Luke 16:18b). But the Bible doesn't forbid a man divorced from a valid wife to marry a 2nd, single, woman who isn't divorced from a valid husband, so long as it was his 1st wife (whether a non-Christian or Christian) who divorced him. But then in God's eyes, he will be married to 2 women at the same time (so long as both remain alive), which, while the Bible doesn't require is a sin in itself, because it isn't the best situation, it disqualifies him from taking any leadership positions in the Church (1 Timothy 3:2,12), based on the basic idea of 1 Timothy 3:5.
The now-abolished letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law (Ephesians 2:15-16, Colossians 2:14-17, Romans 7:6) permitted a divorced woman to marry someone else (Deuteronomy 24:2). But if her 2nd marriage ended, the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law forbade her to remarry her 1st husband (Deuteronomy 24:4). The New Covenant rules turn this on its head. For now a woman divorced from a valid husband can't marry anyone else (Mark 10:12, Luke 16:18b), but she can remarry her valid husband (1 Corinthians 7:11). It was because the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law permitted a divorced woman to marry someone else, that Jesus Christ, while the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law was still in effect, could acknowledge the woman of Samaria's 5 marriages (John 4:18, assuming all 5 didn't end in the death of her husband: cf. Luke 20:29-31). The New Covenant rules forbidding a woman divorced from a valid husband to marry anyone else didn't come into legal effect until Jesus' death on the Cross brought the New Covenant into legal effect (Hebrews 9:16-17, Matthew 26:28) and abolished the letter of the Old Covenant Mosaic law (Ephesians 2:15-16, Colossians 2:14-17, Romans 7:6).
God never said marriage would be easy. And He has set such strict, New Covenant rules regarding divorce and 2nd marriages (Matthew 19:9, Mark 10:12) that the apostles said it's better not to get married at all (Matthew 19:10). Jesus answered by saying whoever can accept not getting married, and remaining celibate, should accept it (Matthew 19:11-12). The apostle Paul said the same thing, that unmarried celibacy is the best thing for a Christian if he or she can handle it (1 Corinthians 7:1,7-8,32-35). But if someone who hasn't been married can't contain himself or herself sexually, he or she should get married to avoid fornication (1 Corinthians 7:2,9).
The strict New Covenant rules regarding divorce and 2nd marriages cut both ways, in that if Christians find themselves in a miserable marriage which is an adulterous affair in God's eyes (Mark 10:11-12), they can escape their misery and their unrepentant sin at the same time by divorcing their invalid spouse. But if they find themselves in a very pleasant marriage which is an adulterous affair in God's eyes, they have to be willing to give it up to escape their unrepentant sin, and thereby avoid ultimately losing their salvation due to unrepentant sin (Hebrews 10:26-29, Galatians 5:19-21, Luke 12:45-46).
The only unforgivable sin is blaspheming God's Holy Spirit (Mark 3:28-29), such as ascribing a work of the Holy Spirit to Satan (Mark 3:22-30). Any other sin can be forgiven if it's repented from and confessed to God (1 John 1:9). Just as if Christians find themselves living in the sin of an adulterous affair, they can't continue in that sin, so if they find themselves living in the sin of 2nd marriage adultery (Mark 10:12, Matthew 19:9), they can't continue in that sin (or any other sin) and expect God's grace to forgive them (Hebrews 10:26-29, Galatians 5:19-21; 1 Corinthians 6:9-10). Instead, they must break off with the 2nd, invalid spouse, even if they've had children with the 2nd spouse, just as married people must break off an adulterous affair even if they've had children as a result of that affair.
After breaking off an adulterous 2nd marriage, a wife must remain unmarried or be reconciled to her 1st, valid husband (1 Corinthians 7:11), if she has one. And if she has one, she can't marry someone else, even if, for example, that would help her and her children to escape poverty. For just as escaping poverty wouldn't justify the wife continuing in the sin of an adulterous affair with a man who financially supports her and her children (or wouldn't justify the sin of her becoming and remaining a well-paid prostitute), so escaping poverty wouldn't justify the sin of her entering into another case of 2nd marriage adultery (Mark 10:12) with a man who financially supports her and her children.
Romans 3:31 means Christians establish the Old Covenant Mosaic law not in its letter, but in its spirit (Romans 7:6), by loving others (Romans 13:8-10, Galatians 5:14, Matthew 7:12). Part of loving others is warning them if they're living in sin (Revelation 3:19; 2 Thessalonians 3:15, Hebrews 3:13, James 5:19-20). The worst thing a Christian can do is coddle people who are living in sin, instead of sharing with them the hard (yet saving) truths of God's Word the Holy Bible (2 Timothy 4:2-4, cf. Jeremiah 23:14,22,29). Telling the truth to people can sometimes hurt them, but that's better than deceiving them with something which makes them feel good (Proverbs 27:6, Proverbs 28:23). The reason 2nd marriage adultery (or any other sin) is so common in the Church today is because so much of the Church has stopped teaching and believing the hard truths of God's Word (2 Timothy 4:2-4, cf. Jeremiah 23:14,22,29).
Dig4truth said in post #596:
Are you saying that the Father and the Son are not One?
They are one YHWH God (John 10:30, John 1:1,14), but two distinct Persons (Matthew 3:16-17).
Dig4truth said in post #596:
He also said that "He who has seen Me has seen the Father".
That's right (John 14:9), but compare what 1 John 4:12a says. It and John 1:18a mean no one has ever seen God the Father Himself (John 5:37, John 6:46). But people saw a picture of God the Father when they saw Jesus Christ at His 1st coming. For, as you pointed out, Jesus said: "he that hath seen me hath seen the Father" (John 14:9). Jesus is the "image" of the invisible God the Father (Colossians 1:15).