Concerning the article about God’s omniscience, I felt a need to clarify what I mean by “God’s commands are only to those whom He knows are going to desire to obey them.” My intention in this statement is related to those who God knows are never going to believe, e.g. “he that believeth not is condemned already, because he hath not believed” (Jhn 3:18). Notice the past tense in “hath not believed,” which to me is reference to God’s foreknowledge of those who He knows will never believe. Hope this helps my mistake of not noticing its significance earlier. Thanks and God bless!
