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Shameless bumpAnymore views from Partial Preterists on this? Thanks
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Shameless bumpAnymore views from Partial Preterists on this? Thanks
Thank you for the informative post. I see absolutely no reason to put a 2000yr gap into Matthew 24 unless it is to keep from being "full preterism" with all of it fulfilled in 70ad. It is no different than some viewing a 2000yr gap in Daniel 9.It's curious that a partial preterist should say that
because it is partial preterism's stance that the
tribulation of Matthew 24:4-28 and Revelation
chapters 6-18 happened in 70 AD which eviscerates
(just as pre-trib does) the whole raison d'etre of
Matthew 24:4-28 and Revelation chapters 6-18, which
is to warn the Church (Revelation 1:1, 22:16) ahead
of time (Matthew 24:25) what it is going to have to
face so that it won't be deceived (Matthew
24:4b-5,24-25) and won't lose faith (Revelation 13:10,
14:12-13) during the coming tribulation.
Partial preterism (just as pre-trib) would have the
Church completely unprepared for what is coming,
thinking that it won't have to face it at all, because
it already happened in 70 AD (or, in the case of pre-
trib, because the Church will be raptured into the
third heaven before it happens).
But thank God that Jesus has told us beforehand
everything that we need to know (Mark 13:23) in order
to not be deceived and not lose faith during the coming
tribulation, but to endure unto the end of it, knowing
that "immediately" after it Jesus will return and gather
us together to Him (Matthew 24:29-31; cf.
2 Thessalonians 2:1) and destroy the Antichrist
(2 Thessalonians 2:8, Revelation 19:20).
271 Corinthians 15:23
and each in their proper order, a first-fruit Christ, afterwards those who are the Christ’s, in His parousia<3952>, 24 then — the end<5056>,
2 Peter 3:121 Corinthians 15:23
and each in their proper order, a first-fruit Christ, afterwards those who are the Christ’s, in His parousia<3952>, 24 then — the end<5056>,
I have never heard of a "mini second coming" unless you mean after the 1000yr period?I can't justify this position systematically. But I still feel that the beginning of the Olivet discourse clearly refers to a LOCAL event. 70 AD. Whereas. The end of the Olivet discourse. Clearly refers to a GLOBAL cataclysmic event come parable with the biblically global. Noah's flood.
Obviously Jesus uses the exact same language "coming of the son of Man in glory."
Yet most to all of us here seem to sense that we're still talking about 2 different events.
So perhaps there is a way of viewing. seventy AD as a foreshadowing pre figuring "mini second coming" or something like that?