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Icyspark

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Hi spark, You outlined what you believe about Gentiles and the Sabbath without any proof that Gentile nations ever given or heeded any of the laws Israel had to deal with. So, I assume you are not privy to any historical or Biblical knowledge of God ever asking anyone besides Israel to observe special days.


Hi Bob S,

In my "Ten Reasons I'm a Sabbatarian" thread I supplied that:
  • Jesus kept the Sabbath
  • Paul kept the Sabbath
  • The Apostles kept the Sabbath
  • The Gentiles kept the Sabbath
Furthermore I supplied that:
  • We are told to follow the example of Jesus
  • We are told to follow the example of Paul
You are looking for a "command," but you are rejecting the very thing you say you seek. You are like unbelievers looking for a sign from Jesus, but He says none will be given. You are like the rich man pleading to send Lazarus to warn his family. But the response is that they need to listen to the information already available. Will you listen? Paul talks about men who are "always learning but never able to come to a knowledge of the truth." Icy it.

How is it you get to reject the example of Jesus, Paul, the apostles, and the Gentiles who all observed the Sabbath?


Hold on there, partner. It is you that "assumes" something that is not there. It was God who rested from work He had done creating all that He did. It doesn't establish a precedence and you of all people should not assume that it does unless you cling to the writings of your prophet who added her own thoughts whenever necessary to coincide with her belief system.


No, I'm the one taking Jesus's affirmation that, "the Sabbath was MADE for human beings..." and reading that in its normative sense. You are the one going to the absurd in an attempt to deny the obvious. Jesus didn't bless the seventh day for Himself. Jesus didn't make the seventh day holy for Himself. Jesus didn't rest on the seventh day because He was tired. Jesus didn't get baptized because He was sinful. For you to insist that the Sabbath isn't the Sabbath merely because you don't see a command is again revealing your predetermined beliefs and not a conscientious consideration of what should be obvious to the unbiased reader.

Since Jesus said the Sabbath was "made," when do you suppose it was "made" if it wasn't "in the beginning" when things were "made"?


I insist on a command given only to one nation, Israel. Adultery and murder are part of Jesus Law of Love. I am to love others like Jesus loves us. Would Jesus murder or commit adultery to our fellow human beings??


No. You reject information which doesn't suit your predetermined beliefs. Most scholars have no problem accepting that the seventh day of creation is dealing with the issue of the Sabbath. Why? Because it's obvious.

You don't get to arbitrarily accept that "adultery and murder are part of Jesus Law of Love." Prove it. You don't just get to make these assertions and walk away. You can't prove it. The Sabbath is more fully articulated in the book of Genesis than the prohibition against murder or adultery. Again, you just accept that these are "part of Jesus Law of Love" merely because you have no command to indicate their Godly disapproval. You realize that your same nonsensical appeal to the "law of love" could also be applied to the Sabbath? Your arbitrary designations of what you consider "moral" and what is not only reveals your apparent desire to elevate your finite and flawed opinion above the Word of God.


I agree that anything dealing with morality has been known from the beginning. Ritual laws are instituted by God as He sees fit.


See, this is your latest attempt at your version of "brainwashing." You keep pressing forward this nonsensical understanding of what you arbitrarily determine to be moral and what you believe to be ritual. You apparently believe that if you say it often enough that people will believe you. Nope.

In post #13 on this thread you made the following contention: "I know you would like to persuade everyone into believing there is no difference in the laws and we cannot categorize them, but that is nothing but deceivery. SDAs are masters at segregating laws." I find your comment laughably ironic. Who's the one attempting to segregate laws here? Um, that'd be you! According to your finite and failed interpretation you get to be the sole arbiter of what is "moral" and what is "ritual". That God made no such distinction doesn't matter to you as you become the "master at segregating laws" you attempt to deride SDAs as being. How do you reconcile the cognitive dissonance in your beliefs?


What I believe should trouble you spark. Your preconceived beliefs do not allow for any other truths.

All nations had and have a code of ethics and other codes. Israel had their code that no other nation had. I shouldn't have to explain that to you. The ne covenant Jesus initiateed at Calvary had a law in it concerning keeping days I wouod honor my Savior and keep such days. There is nothing to indicate Jesus was/is interested in having mankind observe a any day. To believe, as you most certainly do, that unless I somehow keep Sabbath or loose my eternal home is a ludicrus idea. No law no guilt


Your understanding of the old covenant conflates the agreement with what was agreed upon. A covenant is merely an agreement. The reason for a new agreement was not in any fault in what was agreed upon. "God found fault with the people," not with the perfect law He gave them. If your god provided an imperfect law which had to be abolished then your god is not the God of the Bible.

You're right. No law, no guilt. So are you a sinner? If so, on what basis are you a sinner?

I pray this helps.

But for the grace of God go I,cyspark
 
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rturner76

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So if you think through faith is both, you would think by faith is both too I guess?
Perhaps you could enlighten me about what the difference is? They seem to be the same if not at least similar terms. Through faith and by faith would seem to indicate that either way, faith is a requirement for salvation.
 
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Guojing

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Perhaps you could enlighten me about what the difference is? They seem to be the same if not at least similar terms. Through faith and by faith would seem to indicate that either way, faith is a requirement for salvation.

My point is, if they are the same, then why did Paul even bother to state Romans 3:30?

You do agree that Hebrews 11 kept using the term "by faith", and all those examples required a corresponding action from the person?

So, my conclusion is "through faith" is through the faith of Christ, allowing Paul to state that for us in the Body of Christ in the but now time period, we are saved through faith alone, without any corresponding action on our part (Romans 4:5, Ephesians 2:8-9 etc).
 
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NewLifeInChristJesus

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  • Jesus quotes from the Ten Commandment covenant: "You shall not commit adultery."
  • Jesus magnifies the law and equates adultery with looking lustfully at a woman.
  • Jesus says it is better to pluck out your eye rather than to be guilty of adultery.
  • Jesus says it is better to lose one part of your body than for your whole body to be thrown into hell. (Translation: LOSS OF SALVATION)
The act of adultery (or murder, or theft, or +7) is not what denies salvation. It merely reveals your lack of love for the One you claim to love. God says, "Those that honor Me, I will honor." Do you know where that quote is found in the Bible? Go look it up sometime. It's very enlightening.

So, what do you think? According to Jesus, is there any correlation between what you do and your salvation?
This is interesting to me, especially the "loss of salvation" part. I think I understand the correlation you are trying to make between what you do and your salvation. Your lack of love for Jesus is revealed when you break any of the 10 commandments physically or in your heart, and if you are saved at the time your lack of love is revealed, you immediately lose your salvation. Since according to Jesus, "For out of the heart proceed evil thoughts, murders, adulteries, fornications, thefts, false witness, blasphemies (Matt 15:19)," you would have been better off to cut out your evil heart and go to heaven immediately, than to sin in your heart and be doomed to hell forever. That makes complete sense to me.

But what I don't understand is the path back to salvation once it is lost. Hebrews 10:26-27 says, "For if we sin willfully after we have received the knowledge of the truth, there no longer remains a sacrifice for sins, but a certain fearful expectation of judgment, and fiery indignation which will devour the adversaries." Is salvation a one-shot deal? Lose it and you're done? If there is a path back what is the path back? I'm just curious because no matter how hard I try, and even though I'm very successful at resisting sin, I find that I still make bad decisions on occasion, stumble and sin. Hopefully you have just as solid an answer for the pathway to restoration as you do for the pathway to Hell.
 
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Gary K

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This is interesting to me, especially the "loss of salvation" part. I think I understand the correlation you are trying to make between what you do and your salvation. Your lack of love for Jesus is revealed when you break any of the 10 commandments physically or in your heart, and if you are saved at the time your lack of love is revealed, you immediately lose your salvation. Since according to Jesus, "For out of the heart proceed evil thoughts, murders, adulteries, fornications, thefts, false witness, blasphemies (Matt 15:19)," you would have been better off to cut out your evil heart and go to heaven immediately, than to sin in your heart and be doomed to hell forever. That makes complete sense to me.

But what I don't understand is the path back to salvation once it is lost. Hebrews 10:26-27 says, "For if we sin willfully after we have received the knowledge of the truth, there no longer remains a sacrifice for sins, but a certain fearful expectation of judgment, and fiery indignation which will devour the adversaries." Is salvation a one-shot deal? Lose it and you're done? If there is a path back what is the path back? I'm just curious because no matter how hard I try, and even though I'm very successful at resisting sin, I find that I still make bad decisions on occasion, stumble and sin. Hopefully you have just as solid an answer for the pathway to restoration as you do for the pathway to Hell.
I believe you're mistaken in your assumption that a single sin causes a believer to lose their salvation. Did Peter lose his relationship/salvation when he denied knowing Jesus? No he didn't. Jesus told the women on Sunday morning to go tell His disciples, and Peter. that He would meet them by the Sea of Galilee. He knew Peter would be guilt ridden from denying Him and wanted to reassure Peter that he was already forgiven. We don't lose our salvation until we completely break off our relationship with God as Judas did when he betrayed Jesus because he was mad Jesus had rebuked him for his greed.

See the difference? Peter immediately repented, Judas was beyond repenting after selling out Jesus for the price of a slave.
 
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rturner76

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My point is, if they are the same, then why did Paul even bother to state Romans 3:30?

You do agree that Hebrews 11 kept using the term "by faith", and all those examples required a corresponding action from the person?

So, my conclusion is "through faith" is through the faith of Christ, allowing Paul to state that for us in the Body of Christ in the but now time period, we are saved through faith alone, without any corresponding action on our part (Romans 4:5, Ephesians 2:8-9 etc).
Isn't having or living by faith a corresponding action to a calling? I think the verse of Romans 3:30 is indicating that in the same way that the chosen people are saved, the people of the new covenant are saved even though one is through the law and one is through faith. Having faith in the law in the old covenant (circumcision and the 613 Levitical laws) can be cast aside is equal to having faith in God and the Messiah.
 
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Guojing

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Isn't having or living by faith a corresponding action to a calling? I think the verse of Romans 3:30 is indicating that in the same way that the chosen people are saved, the people of the new covenant are saved even though one is through the law and one is through faith. Having faith in the law in the old covenant (circumcision and the 613 Levitical laws) can be cast aside is equal to having faith in God and the Messiah.

As I said, Hebrews 11 confirmed what "by faith" means to the circumcision, it requires corresponding action.

So I agree with you. The obvious cross reference verse to Hebrews 11 is James 2:24.

What I am saying is that "through faith" is distinct from "by faith". If there is no distinction, then Paul's statement in Romans 3:30 is redundant.
 
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SabbathBlessings

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This is interesting to me, especially the "loss of salvation" part. I think I understand the correlation you are trying to make between what you do and your salvation. Your lack of love for Jesus is revealed when you break any of the 10 commandments physically or in your heart, and if you are saved at the time your lack of love is revealed, you immediately lose your salvation. Since according to Jesus, "For out of the heart proceed evil thoughts, murders, adulteries, fornications, thefts, false witness, blasphemies (Matt 15:19)," you would have been better off to cut out your evil heart and go to heaven immediately, than to sin in your heart and be doomed to hell forever. That makes complete sense to me.

But what I don't understand is the path back to salvation once it is lost. Hebrews 10:26-27 says, "For if we sin willfully after we have received the knowledge of the truth, there no longer remains a sacrifice for sins, but a certain fearful expectation of judgment, and fiery indignation which will devour the adversaries." Is salvation a one-shot deal? Lose it and you're done? If there is a path back what is the path back? I'm just curious because no matter how hard I try, and even though I'm very successful at resisting sin, I find that I still make bad decisions on occasion, stumble and sin. Hopefully you have just as solid an answer for the pathway to restoration as you do for the pathway to Hell.
I know this was not addressed to me, but you ask a very good question. If sin bothers you, thats a good thing, what is scary is being comfortable living in sin. When a righteous man sins, he will get back up, repent and ask Jesus to help him overcome.

I would like to suggest this very short video that talks about this very thing. It’s about 15 minutes but packed with scripture on how to overcome sin in an interesting format.

Overcoming Temptation | Bible Talk | Amazing Facts
 
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NewLifeInChristJesus

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I know this was not addressed to me, but you ask a very good question. If sin bothers you, thats a good thing, what is scary is being comfortable living in sin. When a righteous man sins, he will get back up, repent and ask Jesus to help him overcome.

I would like to suggest this very short video that talks about this very thing. It’s about 15 minutes but packed with scripture on how to overcome sin in an interesting format.

Overcoming Temptation | Bible Talk | Amazing Facts

I believe you're mistaken in your assumption that a single sin causes a believer to lose their salvation. Did Peter lose his relationship/salvation when he denied knowing Jesus? No he didn't. Jesus told the women on Sunday morning to go tell His disciples, and Peter. that He would meet them by the Sea of Galilee. He knew Peter would be guilt ridden from denying Him and wanted to reassure Peter that he was already forgiven. We don't lose our salvation until we completely break off our relationship with God as Judas did when he betrayed Jesus because he was mad Jesus had rebuked him for his greed.

See the difference? Peter immediately repented, Judas was beyond repenting after selling out Jesus for the price of a slave.
Thank you both for straigtening me out on the loss of salvation. Now I understand that the act of adultery, or murder, or theft, or +7 committed physically or in the heart does not necessarily translate into the loss of one's salvation. It depends on whether your sins bother you and/or cause you to be guilt ridden. This is particularly helpful: "When a righteous man sins, he will get back up, repent and ask Jesus to help him overcome."

So, in terms of the OP (repeated in part below for convenience), there is no direct correlation between the sins you commit physically or in your heart and the status of your salvation. The correlation is indirect in that it depends on how you feel about your sin and what you do with your sin. If the right feelings and actions do not accompany your sins, then lose your salvation, and there is no path back (you guys didn't address that question, so I assume you mean to imply that if you lose your salvation like Judas did, there is no path back).
Matthew 5:27-30“You have heard that it was said to those of old, ‘You shall not commit adultery.' But I say to you that whoever looks at a woman to lust for her has already committed adultery with her in his heart. If your right eye causes you to sin, pluck it out and cast it from you; for it is more profitable for you that one of your members perish, than for your whole body to be cast into hell. And if your right hand causes you to sin, cut it off and cast it from you; for it is more profitable for you that one of your members perish, than for your whole body to be cast into hell.
  • Jesus quotes from the Ten Commandment covenant: "You shall not commit adultery."
  • Jesus magnifies the law and equates adultery with looking lustfully at a woman.
  • Jesus says it is better to pluck out your eye rather than to be guilty of adultery.
  • Jesus says it is better to lose one part of your body than for your whole body to be thrown into hell. (Translation: LOSS OF SALVATION)
The act of adultery (or murder, or theft, or +7) is not what denies salvation. It merely reveals your lack of love for the One you claim to love. God says, "Those that honor Me, I will honor." Do you know where that quote is found in the Bible? Go look it up sometime. It's very enlightening.

So, what do you think? According to Jesus, is there any correlation between what you do and your salvation?
 
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SabbathBlessings

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Thank you both for straigtening me out on the loss of salvation. Now I understand that the act of adultery, or murder, or theft, or +7 committed physically or in the heart does not necessarily translate into the loss of one's salvation. It depends on whether your sins bother you and/or cause you to be guilt ridden. This is particularly helpful: "When a righteous man sins, he will get back up, repent and ask Jesus to help him overcome."

So, in terms of the OP (repeated in part below for convenience), there is no direct correlation between the sins you commit physically or in your heart and the status of your salvation. The correlation is indirect in that it depends on how you feel about your sin and what you do with your sin. If the right feelings and actions do not accompany your sins, then lose your salvation, and there is no path back (you guys didn't address that question, so I assume you mean to imply that if you lose your salvation like Judas did, there is no path back).
The ultimate sin that can't be forgiven is when one stops listening to the Holy Spirit. The Holy Spirit is given to convict us of sin and lead us to Truth John 16:8,13 so we will have a change in heart and repent of our sins - which is breaking God's law 1 John 3:4 Romans 7:7.

These feelings of guilt when doing something wrong means one has not lost the guidance of the Holy Spirit. Someone cut off from the Holy Spirit feels no remorse when sinning and scripture even tells us those who do this will start believing the lies. Thess 2:10-12

I always pray to forgive my sins daily, but I ask God to show me my sins and help me overcome them through His Spirit. The Ten Commandments are like a mirror, they just show us what we should or should not be doing, the Spirit helps convicts us and Jesus helps us to overcome with our cooperation. The most important thing to do as soon as you sin, come to Jesus and pray and ask for repentance and ask His help to help you overcome. What is not possible on our own is possible through Christ. Phil 4:13 :twohearts:
 
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rturner76

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As I said, Hebrews 11 confirmed what "by faith" means to the circumcision, it requires corresponding action.

So I agree with you. The obvious cross reference verse to Hebrews 11 is James 2:24.

What I am saying is that "through faith" is distinct from "by faith". If there is no distinction, then Paul's statement in Romans 3:30 is redundant.
I think that the members of the second covenant DO also have a required response which would be to accept God's salvation (faith) or not.
 
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Bob S

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Hi Bob S,

In my "Ten Reasons I'm a Sabbatarian" thread I supplied that:
  • Jesus kept the Sabbath
Except when He broke it.. Jesus is God and God works on the Sabbath.
  • Paul kept the Sabbath
If one goes to church on ?Saturday it does not mean "keeping" Sabbath. If you answer yes then please explain.
  • The Apostles kept the Sabbath
According to who???
  • The Gentiles kept the Sabbath
According to who. Going to the Synagogue does not mean keeping Sabbath. Your going to church on the Israelite Sabbath does not mean that you are "keeping" it.

Furthermore I supplied that:
  • We are told to follow the example of Jesus.
Jesus kept all of the Law the Law that would pertain to most Israelites. He was under the Law. We are not under the Law.
  • We are told to follow the example of Paul
Paul, according to scripture, attended feast days. Did he actually participate? If you answer yes please provide scripture.
You are looking for a "command," but you are rejecting the very thing you say you seek. You are like unbelievers looking for a sign from Jesus, but He says none will be given. You are like the rich man pleading to send Lazarus to warn his family. But the response is that they need to listen to the information already available. Will you listen? Paul talks about men who are "always learning but never able to come to a knowledge of the truth." Icy it.

How is it you get to reject the example of Jesus, Paul, the apostles, and the Gentiles who all observed the Sabbath?
All of them "keeping" Sabbath is a figment of your and your church.
No, I'm the one taking Jesus's affirmation that, "the Sabbath was MADE for human beings..." and reading that in its normative sense. You are the one going to the absurd in an attempt to deny the obvious. Jesus didn't bless the seventh day for Himself. Jesus didn't make the seventh day holy for Himself. Jesus didn't rest on the seventh day because He was tired. Jesus didn't get baptized because He was sinful. For you to insist that the Sabbath isn't the Sabbath merely because you don't see a command is again revealing your predetermined beliefs and not a conscientious consideration of what should be obvious to the unbiased reader.
Sorry spark, that is just a bunch of blah, blah and mor blah. As far as we know Jesus/God blessed the day He rested. If He wanted all Seventh-days blessed He would have revealed such. As it is there is absolutely no indication of that happening until after the crossing of the Red Sea by the Israelites. The flight took several weeks to accomplish and Jesus didn't have them stop during their journey. If Jesus was keeping the Sabbath while leading them then He broke the Sabbath you tell us was perpetual from the beginning and Jesús never broke it. You cannot have it both ways. You need to do a lot of "splannin".
Since Jesus said the Sabbath was "made," when do you suppose it was "made" if it wasn't "in the beginning" when things were "made"?
Before He made all of the feast days and new moon days. All we know is that there is no evidence of any other people ever keeping Sabbath before it was given to Israel nor during their inhabiting Cannon.
No. You reject information which doesn't suit your predetermined beliefs. Most scholars have no problem accepting that the seventh day of creation is dealing with the issue of the Sabbath. Why? Because it's obvious.
Most??? Where did you get that information. Most SDA scholars believe that. When they find out they are wrong they head out the back door of the church. Better repair the hinges of those back doors, They are almost worn out.
You don't get to arbitrarily accept that "adultery and murder are part of Jesus Law of Love." Prove it.
Are you telling me you don't believe they are? I need to prove that to you? Come on spark, get real.

You don't just get to make these assertions and walk away. You can't prove it. The Sabbath is more fully articulated in the book of Genesis than the prohibition against murder or adultery.
Fully articulated in Genesis? Now must I understand that because God said He rested on the day after Creation you can hang your hat that that is proof of anything? Don't be silly spark. You know better.

Again, you just accept that these are "part of Jesus Law of Love" merely because you have no command to indicate their Godly disapproval. You realize that your same nonsensical appeal to the "law of love" could also be applied to the Sabbath? Your arbitrary designations of what you consider "moral" and what is not only reveals your apparent desire to elevate your finite and flawed opinion above the Word of God.
It could have been if He made it an issue especially with all His apostles, but He didn't. It was your third grad prophet that made it a life or death decision.
See, this is your latest attempt at your version of "brainwashing." You keep pressing forward this nonsensical understanding of what you arbitrarily determine to be moral and what you believe to be ritual. You apparently believe that if you say it often enough that people will believe you. Nope.
Normal people can do know the difference between laws that deal with morality and those that deal with civil and ritual issues. Stating facts that cannot be proven otherwise is not brainwashing.
In post #13 on this thread you made the following contention: "I know you would like to persuade everyone into believing there is no difference in the laws and we cannot categorize them, but that is nothing but deceivery. SDAs are masters at segregating laws." I find your comment laughably ironic. Who's the one attempting to segregate laws here? Um, that'd be you! According to your finite and failed interpretation you get to be the sole arbiter of what is "moral" and what is "ritual". That God made no such distinction doesn't matter to you as you become the "master at segregating laws" you attempt to deride SDAs as being. How do you reconcile the cognitive dissonance in your beliefs?
HMMM! Somewhere in the back of my mind I seem to recall the SDA reaction to the subject of Col 2:16 as being related to ceremonial.

And of course we can go to the vast writings of dear old Ellen for some thoughts on the subject of ceremonial (ritual).
To substitute the external forms of religion for holiness of heart and life, is still as pleasing to the unrenewed nature as in the days of the apostles. For this reason, false teachers abound, and the people listen eagerly to their delusive doctrines. It is Satan's studied effort to divert the minds of men from the one way of salvation,—faith in Christ, and obedience to the law of God. In every age the arch-enemy adapts his temptations to the prejudices or inclinations of the people. In apostolic times he led the Jews to exalt the ceremonial law, and reject Christ; at the present day he induces many professed Christians, under the pretense of honoring Christ, to cast contempt upon the moral law, and teach that its precepts may be transgressed with impunity. It is the duty of every faithful servant of God, to firmly and decidedly withstand these perverters of the faith, and to fearlessly expose their errors by the word of truth.
LP 192.2

Paul continues to vindicate his position as the apostle of Christ, not by the will of men, but by the power of God. He describes the visit which he made to Jerusalem to secure a settlement of the very questions which are now agitating the churches of Galatia, as to whether the Gentiles should submit to circumcision and keep the ceremonial law. This was the only instance in which he had deferred to the judgment of the other apostles as superior to his own. He had first sought a private interview, in which he set the matter in all its bearings before the leading apostles, Peter, James, and John. With far-seeing wisdom, he concluded that if these men could be led to take a right position, everything would be gained. Had he first presented the question before the whole council, there would have been a division of sentiment. The strong prejudice already excited because he had not enforced circumcision on the Gentiles, would have led many to take a stand against him. Thus the object of his visit would have been defeated, and his usefulness greatly hindered. But the three leading apostles, against whom no such prejudice existed, having themselves been won to the true position, brought the matter before the council, and won from all a concurrence in the decision to leave the Gentiles free from the obligations of the ceremonial law.
LP 192.3

The disciples themselves yet cherished a regard for the ceremonial law, and were too willing to make concessions, hoping by so doing to gain the confidence of their countrymen, remove their prejudice, and win them to faith in Christ as the world's Redeemer. Paul's great object in visiting Jerusalem was to conciliate the church of Palestine. So long as they continued to cherish prejudice against him, they were constantly working to counteract his influence. He felt that if he could by any lawful concession on his part win them to the truth, he would remove a very great obstacle to the success of the gospel in other places. But he was not authorized of God to concede so much as they had asked. This concession was not in harmony with his teachings, nor with the firm integrity of his character. His advisers were not infallible. Though some of these men wrote under the inspiration of the Spirit of God, yet when not under its direct influence they sometimes erred. It will be remembered that on one occasion Paul withstood Peter to the face because he was acting a double part.
LP 213.2


Seems like you should take your problem with labeling to the head of the church. I also remember Matt5:17-19 as meaning ceremonial.

Your understanding of the old covenant conflates the agreement with what was agreed upon. A covenant is merely an agreement. The reason for a new agreement was not in any fault in what was agreed upon. "God found fault with the people," not with the perfect law He gave them. If your god provided an imperfect law which had to be abolished then your god is not the god of the Bible.
Sorry sparky, the old covenant dealt with all aspects of life the Israelites were to adhere to when going into the Land of Milk and Honey. It was their constitution. It was an agreement. Israel broke the agreement thus finely ending the covenant. A new covenant was given them in place of the one they failed to adhere. Hebrews tells us it is not like the old one. We know it is not like the old one because we are not subject to keeping days physical circumcision and adhering to to their civil laws which were the words of the old covenant.
You're right. No law, no guilt. So are you a sinner? If so, on what basis are you a sinner?
Easy sparky, if I do not adhere to the truth I am a sinner. The truth is found in 1Jn3:19 This is how we know that we belong to the truth and how we set our hearts at rest in his presence: 20 If our hearts condemn us, we know that God is greater than our hearts, and he knows everything. 21 Dear friends, if our hearts do not condemn us, we have confidence before God 22 and receive from him anything we ask, because we keep his commands and do what pleases him. 23 And this is his command: to believe in the name of his Son, Jesus Christ, and to love one another as he commanded us. 24 The one who keeps God’s commands lives in him, and he in them. And this is how we know that he lives in us: We know it by the Spirit he gave us
 
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Guojing

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I think that the members of the second covenant DO also have a required response which would be to accept God's salvation (faith) or not.

That is what Paul is saying in Romans 4:5, would you agree? To believe is to accept, which is "worketh not".

No need to build an ark like Noah, no need to leave your hometown or sacrifice your son, like Abraham, etc (Hebrews 11)
 
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rturner76

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That is what Paul is saying in Romans 4:5, would you agree? To believe is to accept, which is "worketh not".

No need to build an ark like Noah, no need to leave your hometown or sacrifice your son, like Abraham, etc (Hebrews 11)
I think I would gree with St Paul
 
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Guojing

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I think I would gree with St Paul

If you do agree with what he said in Romans 4:5, then would you accept that by faith is different from through faith?

By faith requires corresponding work from man.
Through faith does not require work.
 
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rturner76

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If you do agree with what he said in Romans 4:5, then would you accept that by faith is different from through faith?

By faith requires corresponding work from man.
Through faith does not require work.
That verse doesn't seem to say by or through faith so I guess I'm not sure what the difference is if there is one. Are you trying to get me to say I subscribe to a "faith only" doctrine? Because I don't. This one verse does not invalidate the book of James which repeatedly states that those who have been truly saved through the gospel must manifest that salvation in practical ways in their lives. A transformed life of love for others should be the result of experiencing God’s love.
 
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Guojing

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That verse doesn't seem to say by or through faith so I guess I'm not sure what the difference is if there is one. Are you trying to get me to say I subscribe to a "faith only" doctrine? Because I don't. This one verse does not invalidate the book of James which repeatedly states that those who have been truly saved through the gospel must manifest that salvation in practical ways in their lives. A transformed life of love for others should be the result of experiencing God’s love.

No, I am simply saying, by Romans 3:30, that the circumcision and uncircumcision are both saved by the same God, who saved one group by faith, and another group through faith.

If you don't want to believe there is a difference being saved by faith and through faith, despite supporting verses like Romans 4:5 and James 2:24, I am fine. We can agree to disagree.
 
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rturner76

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No, I am simply saying, by Romans 3:30, that the circumcision and uncircumcision are both saved by the same God, who saved one group by faith, and another group through faith.

If you don't want to believe there is a difference being saved by faith and through faith, despite supporting verses like Romans 4:5 and James 2:24, I am fine. We can agree to disagree.
No, it's not that is DON'T believe it. I am just confused as to what the literal difference is. Like being saved BY faith, for the circumcision, is the faith of Abraham and not individual faith whereas being saved through faith is an individual undertaking. I am not a Biblical scholar and I can get confused when it comes to how different terms are translated into English. Forgive my ignorance, I am not denying what you are saying, I simply seek a better understanding of how these terms can be differentieated. Like for example (and this is not Biblical), if I were to say I am saved by baptism or through baptism, it seems like I'm saying the same thing.
 
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Guojing

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No, it's not that is DON'T believe it. I am just confused as to what the literal difference is.

Hebrews 11 tells the circumcised what by faith means, likewise James 2:24, which is written to the 12 tribes (James 1:1).

In both passages, a corresponding work is required, as you have clearly stated.

Paul is an apostle to the gentiles (Romans 11:13), the uncircumcised, and tells us what through faith means, in passages like Romans 4:5, and Ephesians 2:8-9.

In both passages, salvation is clearly not of works.

Still confused after I present like that?
 
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