The Issue of Universalism and Possible Ultimate Release from Hell

[FineLinen]

Before addressing the specific questions, we need to understand man’s objective while here on earth, since earth is the only place where this objective can be obtained. Everything is driven by the man’s earthly objective. God is actually doing or allowing all He can to help willing individuals fulfill their earthly objective. Included in the “all” are: Christ Going to the cross, satan roaming the earth, tragedies of all kinds, death, judgment, hell, heaven and even sinning. The Universalist and lots of Christians do not understand our “Mission” while on earth, so do you?

1. how can that divine desire ever be permanently thwarted?

There are just somethings that are impossible to do even for God, example: God cannot make another Christ, since Christ is deity and has always existed. We are to become like Christ, but we cannot start out as a clone of Christ.

The big thing God cannot do for man is this: God cannot make a being with instinctive Godly type Love, like some knee jerk reaction, programmed with Godly Love would be like a robotic type Love which Godly type Love is not. God also cannot force Godly type Love on a person and have them Love with Godly type Love, this would be like a shotgun wedding with God holding the shotgun (the threat of some painful experience) to get you to Love Him. This would not be Loving on God’s part nor would the Love obtained be Godly type Love. This Love from Adam & Eve on has obtained someway as a result of an autonomous free will choice. It is too great to learn, develop, or pay for, so it is a free undeserving gift given to those who want it. So the problem is not with God’s ability, but with man’s want.

2. How can sins committed during a relatively brief lifespan merit not just annihilation, but eternal conscious torment from a just God?

I do believe in hell, but the second death is death forever (annihilation).

Sin is made hugely unbelievably significant/costly seen in the disciple and punishment given for sin, which I and others really seem to need, but God does not personally need it to be hugely costly. I and others need God’s help, so God made it hugely costly.

The only way I have seen and found in scripture for initially obtaining Godly type Love is simple: “…he that is forgiven much Loves much…” (Luke 7), so sin creases an unbelievable huge debt, but when I accept God’s forgiveness of my unbelievable huge debt, I automatically am gifted with an unbelievable huge Love (Godly type Love). My free will choice is in humbly accepting God’s forgiveness as pure undeserved charity.

3. How can God's pure unconditional love eternally abandon any sinner after death?

God Loves everyone unconditionally and does not stop Loving them!! The problem is with man accepting that Love as pure undeserved charity. It appears most people choose to be loved by others for the way they want others to perceive them to be, and not in spite of the way they truly are. We cannot know, but God can know when a person has had all the opportunities, he/she can have to humbly accept God’s Love as pure undeserving charity and will never do that of their own free will. They just do not like Godly type Love nor would they want such a Love for themselves. God Loves them but they would never be happy in heaven where there is only Godly type Love being exchanged. They would not be unhappy not existing and that is the only other option. The fact that other children of God need to realize a huge debt for sin and there are those not going to heaven around who could show a huge debt for sin, as at least some benefit for their existence, results in them spend some time in hell provide encouragement to those still able to accept quickly.

4. If sinners in Hell eventually long to benefit from divine grace and live a life pleasing to God, why would it ever be too late for a loving God to respond positively to this longing? As C. S. Lewis put it, "The gates of Hell are locked from the inside."

Sinners in hell have repeatedly shown to the point of never liking God’s charity (grace/mercy/love/forgiveness). Again, Godly type Love is not something that can be programmed into a person, learned, developed or forced on the person, so once the person leaves earth, how can they become happy in heaven without Love or obtain this Love with torture/sever discipline.

I am only addressing those who had in their life the opportunity to accept or reject God’s Love. If a person never had the opportunity, they would go on to heaven without fulfilling their earthly objective.

 

[FineLinen]

[QUOTE="bling, post: 76939751, member: 216174"[/quote]


God Loves everyone unconditionally and does not stop Loving them!! The problem is... [/QUOTE]

The problem is, Bling should have stopped with Fathers unconditional love and its duration.

 

[FineLinen]

"God Loves everyone unconditionally and does not stop Loving them!! The problem is... "

The problem is, Bling should have stopped with Fathers unconditional love and its duration.

 

[Der Alte]

Before addressing the specific questions, we need to understand man’s objective while here on earth, since earth is the only place where this objective can be obtained. Everything is driven by the man’s earthly objective. God is actually doing or allowing all He can to help willing individuals fulfill their earthly objective. Included in the “all” are: Christ Going to the cross, satan roaming the earth, tragedies of all kinds, death, judgment, hell, heaven and even sinning. The Universalist and lots of Christians do not understand our “Mission” while on earth, so do you?
1. how can that divine desire ever be permanently thwarted?
There are just somethings that are impossible to do even for God, example: God cannot make another Christ, since Christ is deity and has always existed. We are to become like Christ, but we cannot start out as a clone of Christ.
The big thing God cannot do for man is this: God cannot make a being with instinctive Godly type Love, like some knee jerk reaction, programmed with Godly Love would be like a robotic type Love which Godly type Love is not. God also cannot force Godly type Love on a person and have them Love with Godly type Love, this would be like a shotgun wedding with God holding the shotgun (the threat of some painful experience) to get you to Love Him. This would not be Loving on God’s part nor would the Love obtained be Godly type Love. This Love from Adam & Eve on has obtained someway as a result of an autonomous free will choice. It is too great to learn, develop, or pay for, so it is a free undeserving gift given to those who want it. So the problem is not with God’s ability, but with man’s want.
2. How can sins committed during a relatively brief lifespan merit not just annihilation, but eternal conscious torment from a just God?
I do believe in hell, but the second death is death forever (annihilation).
Sin is made hugely unbelievably significant/costly seen in the disciple and punishment given for sin, which I and others really seem to need, but God does not personally need it to be hugely costly. I and others need God’s help, so God made it hugely costly.
The only way I have seen and found in scripture for initially obtaining Godly type Love is simple: “…he that is forgiven much Loves much…” (Luke 7), so sin creases an unbelievable huge debt, but when I accept God’s forgiveness of my unbelievable huge debt, I automatically am gifted with an unbelievable huge Love (Godly type Love). My free will choice is in humbly accepting God’s forgiveness as pure undeserved charity.
3. How can God's pure unconditional love eternally abandon any sinner after death?
God Loves everyone unconditionally and does not stop Loving them!! The problem is with man accepting that Love as pure undeserved charity. It appears most people choose to be loved by others for the way they want others to perceive them to be, and not in spite of the way they truly are. We cannot know, but God can know when a person has had all the opportunities, he/she can have to humbly accept God’s Love as pure undeserving charity and will never do that of their own free will. They just do not like Godly type Love nor would they want such a Love for themselves. God Loves them but they would never be happy in heaven where there is only Godly type Love being exchanged. They would not be unhappy not existing and that is the only other option. The fact that other children of God need to realize a huge debt for sin and there are those not going to heaven around who could show a huge debt for sin, as at least some benefit for their existence, results in them spend some time in hell provide encouragement to those still able to accept quickly.
4. If sinners in Hell eventually long to benefit from divine grace and live a life pleasing to God, why would it ever be too late for a loving God to respond positively to this longing? As C. S. Lewis put it, "The gates of Hell are locked from the inside."
Sinners in hell have repeatedly shown to the point of never liking God’s charity (grace/mercy/love/forgiveness). Again, Godly type Love is not something that can be programmed into a person, learned, developed or forced on the person, so once the person leaves earth, how can they become happy in heaven without Love or obtain this Love with torture/sever discipline.
I am only addressing those who had in their life the opportunity to accept or reject God’s Love. If a person never had the opportunity, they would go on to heaven without fulfilling their earthly objective.

EOB Matthew:25:46 When he will answer them, saying: ‘Amen, I tell you: as much as you did not do it to one of the least of these, you did not do it to me.’ 46 These [ones on the left] will go away into eternal [αἰώνιος/aionios] punishment, [κόλασις/kolasis] but the righteous into eternal [αἰώνιος/aionios] life.”[p. 96]​

…..Greek has been the language of the Eastern Greek Orthodox church since its inception, 2000 years ago +/-. Note, the native Greek speaking Eastern Orthodox Greek scholars, translators of the EOB, translated “aionios,” in Matt 25:46, as “eternal,” NOT “age."
…..Who is better qualified than the team of native Greek speaking scholars, translators of the Eastern Greek Orthodox Bible [EOB], quoted above and below, to know the correct translation of the Greek in the N.T.?
Link to EOB online:
The New Testament ( The Eastern-Greek Orthodox Bible) : Free Download, Borrow, and Streaming : Internet Archive
…..The Greek word “kolasis” occurs only twice in the N.T., 1st occurrence Matt 25:46, above, and 2nd occurrence 1 John 4:18., below.

EOB 1 John 4:18 There is no fear in love, but perfect love casts out fear, because fear is connected with punishment.[κόλασις/kolasis] But the one who fears is not yet perfect in love.[p. 518]​

In the EOB the Greek word “kolasis” is translated “punishment” in both Matt 25:46 and 1 John 4:18.
…..Some badly informed folks claim “kolasis” really means “prune” or “correction.”
Sorry, that is impossible, both “prune” and “correction” are verbs. “Kolasis” is a noun. One cannot translate a noun as a verb.
Also according to the EOB Greek scholars “kolasis” means “punishment.”
Note: in 1 John 4:18 there is no correction, the one with “kolasis” is not made perfect. Thus “kolasis” does not/cannot mean “correction.”
…..It is understood that modern Greek differs from koine Greek but I am confident that the native Greek speaking EOB scholars, supported by 2000 years +/- of uninterrupted Greek scholarship, are competent enough to know the correct translation of obsolete Greek words which may have changed in meaning or are no longer in use and to translate them correctly. Just as scholars today know the meaning of obsolete English words which occur in the 1611 KJV and can define them correctly.

 

[Berserk]

Notice how evangelicals like Der Alte feel the need to flee to texts outside of Revelation in order to avoid the hard work of grappling with a proper exegesis of the universalist-friendly texts in Revelation itself.

 

[Der Alte]

Notice how evangelicals like Der Alte feel the need to flee to texts outside of Revelation in order to avoid the hard work of grappling with a proper exegesis of the universalist-friendly texts in Revelation itself.

Nonsense! I don't flee from or to anyone or anything. I don't think I have used a text outside of Revelation to address any post about Revelation.
If you think you have a rock-solid Revelation verse or verses which support Universal reconciliation point me to it and I am sure I can refute it. See e.g. my post #20, this thread
Link: The Issue of Universalism and Possible Ultimate Release from Hell

 

[Jipsah]

And the serpent said unto the woman: 'Ye shall not surely die;

That's what ECT fans believe as well, innit? Nobody dies, but many spend their eternal lives in hell. Right?

 

[Der Alte]

...

That's what ECT fans believe as well, innit? Nobody dies, but many spend their eternal lives in hell. Right?

That is what Jesus taught. The correct Biblical term is "eternal punishment." see Matt 25:46.

EOB Matthew:25:46 When he will answer them, saying: ‘Amen, I tell you: as much as you did not do it to one of the least of these, you did not do it to me.’ 46 These [ones on the left] will go away into eternal [αἰώνιος/aionios] punishment, [κόλασις/kolasis] but the righteous into eternal [αἰώνιος/aionios] life.”[p. 96]​

…..Greek has been the language of the Eastern Greek Orthodox church since its inception, 2000 years ago +/-. Note, the native Greek speaking Eastern Orthodox Greek scholars, translators of the EOB, translated “aionios,” in Matt 25:46, as “eternal,” NOT “age.”
…..Who is better qualified than the team of native Greek speaking scholars, translators of the Eastern Greek Orthodox Bible [EOB], quoted above and below, to know the correct translation of the Greek in the N.T.?
Link to EOB online:
The New Testament ( The Eastern-Greek Orthodox Bible) : Free Download, Borrow, and Streaming : Internet Archive
…..The Greek word “kolasis” occurs only twice in the N.T., 1st occurrence Matt 25:46, above, and 2nd occurrence 1 John 4:18., below.

EOB 1 John 4:18 There is no fear in love, but perfect love casts out fear, because fear is connected with punishment.[κόλασις/kolasis] But the one who fears is not yet perfect in love.[p. 518]​

In the EOB the Greek word “kolasis” is translated “punishment” in both Matt 25:46 and 1 John 4:18.
…..Some badly informed folks claim “kolasis” really means “prune” or “correction.”
Sorry, that is impossible, both “prune” and “correction” are verbs. “Kolasis” is a noun. One cannot translate a noun as a verb.
Also according to the EOB Greek scholars “kolasis” means “punishment.”
Note: in 1 John 4:18 there is no correction, the one with “kolasis” is not made perfect. Thus “kolasis” does not/cannot mean “correction.”
…..It is understood that modern Greek differs from koine Greek but I am confident that the native Greek speaking EOB scholars, supported by 2000 years +/- of uninterrupted Greek scholarship, are competent enough to know the correct translation of obsolete Greek words which may have changed in meaning or are no longer in use and to translate them correctly. Just as scholars today know the meaning of obsolete English words which occur in the 1611 KJV and can define them correctly.

 

[Berserk]

Nonsense! I don't flee from or to anyone or anything. I don't think I have used a text outside of Revelation to address any post about Revelation.
If you think you have a rock-solid Revelation verse or verses which support Universal reconciliation point me to it and I am sure I can refute it. See e.g. my post #20, this thread
Link: The Issue of Universalism and Possible Ultimate Release from Hell

Post #18 expresses 3 compelling arguments, none of which you address in post #20. You don't seem to get the fact that the universalist interpretation of Revelation presumes that "the unjust" will "be unjust still" and must therefore face divine judgment and temporary consignment to the lake of fire. Your subsequent argument from the Gospel ignores my OP's request in the interest of orderly and coherent discussion to all my thread to present the universalist case NT book by book, progressing from Revelation to 1 Peter, to Paul, and finally to Jesus.

 

[Der Alte]

Post #18 expresses 3 compelling arguments, none of which you address in post #20. You don't seem to get the fact that the universalist interpretation of Revelation presumes that "the unjust" will "be unjust still" and must therefore face divine judgment and temporary consignment to the lake of fire. Your subsequent argument from the Gospel ignores my OP's request in the interest of orderly and coherent discussion to all my thread to present the universalist case NT book by book, progressing from Revelation to 1 Peter, to Paul, and finally to Jesus.

I was accused of "flee[ing] to texts outside of Revelation in order to avoid the hard work of grappling with a proper exegesis of the universalist-friendly texts in Revelation itself."
Which I never did but you quoted these non-Biblical sources in support of your argument," Apocalypse of Peter 14; Sibylline Oraces II:331-335). ... C. S. Lewis"
I don't have to dot every "I" and cross every "T" that you quoted. I jumped to the conclusion. Nothing in any preceding chapter changes chapter 22.

Revelation 22:11-12
(11) He that is unjust, let him be unjust still: and he which is filthy, let him be filthy still: and he that is righteous, let him be righteous still: and he that is holy, let him be holy still.
(12) And, behold, I come quickly; and my reward is with me, to give every man according as his work shall be.​

Those who are unjust and filthy will be rewarded according to his work. I am fairly sure that does not include eternal life.

 

[Berserk]

II. SOUL RETRIEVALS FROM HELL IN 1 PETER:

"He [Christ] was put to death in the flesh, but made alive in the spirit, on which also he went and made proclamation to the spirits in prison...(1 Peter 3:18-19)."

Jesus would hardly preach the Gospel to the wicked dead without giving them a chance for a positive response. So like the Book of Revelation, Peter presumes the possibility of soul retrievals from Hell.
"Prison" is a standard Jewish term for Hades. Peter zeros in on the evil dead from Noah's day simply to set up his use of the Flood as a type of baptism.

In 4:6 the phrase "the Gospel was preached even to the dead" picks up the phrase "made proclamation to "the spirits in prison" and thus makes 2 points clear:
(1) The spirits in prison" are deceased sinners, not evil angels.
(2) As a result of a positive response to Christ's preaching, they are now saved and "live in the spirit as God does:"

"For this is the reason the Gospel was preached even to the dead, so that, though they had been judged in the flesh, as everyone is judged, they might live in the spirit as God does (1 Peter 4:6)."

 

[Basil the Great]

If I were a betting man, which I am not, I would bet almost everything that I have that many posters here on CF will be very surprised at the ins and outs of the afterlife and who ends up where and for how long.

 

[Der Alte]

..."Prison" is a standard Jewish term for Hades. Peter zeros in on the evil dead from Noah's day simply to set up his use of the Flood as a type of baptism.

1Pe 1:1 Peter, an apostle of Jesus Christ, to the strangers scattered throughout Pontus, Galatia, Cappadocia, Asia, and Bithynia,​

Nonsense! Please back this up with scripture? How would gentile Christians in Pontus, Galatia, Cappadocia, Asia, and Bithynia know this?

"For this is the reason the Gospel was preached even to the dead, so that, though they had been judged in the flesh, as everyone is judged, the might live in the spirit as God does (1 Peter 4:6)."[false version]

1Pe 4:6 For for this cause was the gospel preached also to them that are dead, that they might be judged according to men in the flesh, but live according to God in the spirit.​

Please explain how the dead can live in spirit?

 

[Ceallaigh]

How about this question … if EVERYONE will be “purified” in ‘hell’ (insert your term of choice), then why did Jesus need to come and die?

Acts of the Apostles 4:8-12 [ESV]

Then Peter, filled with the Holy Spirit, said to them, "Rulers of the people and elders, if we are being examined today concerning a good deed done to a crippled man, by what means this man has been healed, let it be known to all of you and to all the people of Israel that by the name of Jesus Christ of Nazareth, whom you crucified, whom God raised from the dead--by him this man is standing before you well. This Jesus is the stone that was rejected by you, the builders, which has become the cornerstone. And there is salvation in no one else, for there is no other name under heaven given among men by which we must be saved."​

From the unversalists standpoint, the atoning death of Jesus is what made purification in hell a possibility.

 

[Ceallaigh]

I am not accusing of “trivializing the gospel” … you are either deliberately or unintentionally missing the point. If all roads lead to God, then why CHRIST at all? Why not “nihilism” until death? What makes Islam or Hinduism false and Christianity true? By your own admission, Jesus is NOT the only “way” to God … universalism (BY DEFINITION) means that all roads lead to God.

How does one reconcile the MANY VERSES about “one way” with a belief that “all ways lead to God”? Which contradictory part of scripture is false?

[PS. “Please!” is not really a refutation of the criticism.]

Christian universalism does not teach that all roads lead to God, but rather is quite firm regarding John 14:6.

"Jesus answered, “I am the way and the truth and the life. No one comes to the Father except through me."

 

[Ceallaigh]

Understanding Christian universalism made simple.

I have read many threads on the subject of universalism. And usually when it comes to orthodox Christian beliefs, primarily the only area where unversalists and their detractors are divided is whether hell is is place of correction and purification, or a place of eternal tormenting punishment. And that's all.

Most/all statements I've seen that start off with "Christian universalism teaches..." or "Christian unversalists believe..." outside of that, are erroneous. It actually ends up as bearing false witness. So I think it would be best for those who make claims regarding what Christian unversalists believe and teach, to actually be accurate regarding those claims.

 

[Der Alte]

From the unversalists standpoint, the atoning death of Jesus is what made purification in hell a possibility.

Right about here is where we should be seeing, at least one verse, 2 or more would be better, where God, Himself, or Jesus, Himself, states unequivocally that the unrighteous will be saved in hell.
In the early '90s I was working for my rich uncle in DC and was travelling from the west coast to the Virginia for some training. The man, who was not in uniform, but wearing military issue aviator glasses. in the seat beside me was reading the Bible.
To start a conversation I said, "I like the book you are reading I like how it ends." He smiled and then I said, "You are a military aviator." He looked surprised and said, "Do I have a sign on my forehead?" I said, "No the glasses and the haircut." We chatted some.
I have read the Bible I know how it ends.

Revelation 22:10-12
(10) And he saith unto me, Seal not the sayings of the prophecy of this book: for the time is at hand.
(11) He that is unjust, let him be unjust still: and he which is filthy, let him be filthy still: and he that is righteous, let him be righteous still: and he that is holy, let him be holy still.
(12) And, behold, I come quickly; and my reward is with me, to give every man according as his work shall be.​

Jesus is coming and will, "give every man as his work shall be." 10 more vss. no chances, no more salvation, only "He that is unjust, let him be unjust still: and he which is filthy, let him be filthy still:"

 

[Berserk]

I now plan to shift my focus to universalism in Paul, but first I want to tie up some loose ends about Jesus' redemptive visit to the evil dead in "prison" (= Hades). 1 Peter does not teach universalism, but it provides important support for universalism by highlighting the fact that confinement of the wicked to Hades in no way means that they won't ultimately get saved.

In 1 Peter 3:19 Jesus preaches to "the spirits in prison," including the wicked dead from the time of Noah. The time of Noah is mentioned to set up Peter's treatment of the Flood as a type of baptism (3:20-21). The "spirits' here are deceased wicked humans. The term "spirit" (Greek: "pneuma") is applied to deceased but conscious humans in Heb. 12: 23 and Luke 24:37), The disciples think they are seeing the "spirit" or "ghost' of Jesus until He demonstrates His BODILY resurrection.

The "prison" in which these wicked dead are confined is Hades. Peter teaches that after Jesus' death He descends to "Hades" (Acts 2:27, 31) which is thus "the prison" where He preaches the Gospel to the evil dead. "Prison" is a standard image for "Hell" (see e. g. 1Enoch 10:24-25). Here it is important to recognize that in Jesus' day "Hades" is a realm of conscious existence that can be visited, a fact that explains the conversation in "Hades" between the rich man and Lazarus in Jesus parable (Luke 16:19-31).
Jesus obviously preaches to the evil dead to get them to response positively and be saved. Indeed, their ultimate salvation is implied in 4:6 where the phrase "the Gospel was preached even to the dead" picks up the phrase "He made proclamation to the spirits in prison" in 3:19.

 

[Ceallaigh]

I now plan to shift my focus to universalism in Paul, but first I want to tie up some loose ends about Jesus' redemptive visit to the evil dead in "prison" (= Hades). 1 Peter does not teach universalism, but it provides important support for universalism by highlighting the fact that confinement of the wicked to Hades in no way means that they won't ultimately get saved.

In 1 Peter 3:19 Jesus preaches to "the spirits in prison," including the wicked dead from the time of Noah. The time of Noah is mentioned to set up Peter's treatment of the Flood as a type of baptism (3:20-21). The "spirits' here are deceased wicked humans. The term "spirit" (Greek: "pneuma") is applied to deceased but conscious humans in Heb. 12: 23 and Luke 24:37), The disciples think they are seeing the "spirit" or "ghost' of Jesus until He demonstrates His BODILY resurrection.

The "prison" in which these wicked dead are confined is Hades. Peter teaches that after Jesus' death He descends to "Hades" (Acts 2:27, 31) which is thus "the prison" where He preaches the Gospel to the evil dead. "Prison" is a standard image for "Hell" (see e. g. 1Enoch 10:24-25). Here it is important to recognize that in Jesus' day "Hades" is a realm of conscious existence that can be visited, a fact that explains the conversation in "Hades" between the rich man and Lazarus in Jesus parable (Luke 16:19-31).
Jesus obviously preaches to the evil dead to get them to response positively and be saved. Indeed, their ultimate salvation is implied in 4:6 where the phrase "the Gospel was preached even to the dead" picks up the phrase "He made proclamation to the spirits in prison" in 3:19.

My avatar is an Eastern Orthodox depiction of the broken gates if Hades under the feet of Jesus along with broken locks and chains, and death/devil/hades is defeated, while he draws Adam and Eve unto him.

Here's a another version:

 

[Der Alte]

I now plan to shift my focus to universalism in Paul, but first I want to tie up some loose ends about Jesus' redemptive visit to the evil dead in "prison" (= Hades). 1 Peter does not teach universalism, but it provides important support for universalism by highlighting the fact that confinement of the wicked to Hades in no way means that they won't ultimately get saved.

What a lot of convoluted nonsense. If the Jesus was preaching to the wicked in Hades how was Noah and his family there? And why were none of the wicked saved?

In 1 Peter 3:19 Jesus preaches to "the spirits in prison," including the wicked dead from the time of Noah. The time of Noah is mentioned to set up Peter's treatment of the Flood as a type of baptism (3:20-21). The "spirits' here are deceased wicked humans. The term "spirit" (Greek: "pneuma") is applied to deceased but conscious humans in Heb. 12: 23 and Luke 24:37), The disciples think they are seeing the "spirit" or "ghost' of Jesus until He demonstrates His BODILY resurrection.

Why would Noah and his family be in the same place as wicked dead? Lk 24:37 does not support your argument.

The "prison" in which these wicked dead are confined is Hades. Peter teaches that after Jesus' death He descends to "Hades" (Acts 2:27, 31) which is thus "the prison" where He preaches the Gospel to the evil dead. "Prison" is a standard image for "Hell" (see e. g. 1Enoch 10:24-25). Here it is important to recognize that in Jesus' day "Hades" is a realm of conscious existence that can be visited, a fact that explains the conversation in "Hades" between the rich man and Lazarus in Jesus parable (Luke 16:19-31).
Jesus obviously preaches to the evil dead to get them to response positively and be saved. Indeed, their ultimate salvation is implied in 4:6 where the phrase "the Gospel was preached even to the dead" picks up the phrase "He made proclamation to the spirits in prison" in 3:19.

If Jesus was preaching to the evil dead, why was Noah and his family there? What was Jesus' purpose preaching to the evil dead, none of them were saved only Noah and his family.