Savior of the World, or Eternal Failure?

[ClementofA]

I have found that it is very helpful to actually read a post before trying to respond.
Where is it written that we all get an equal reward? Daniel never said that. Jesus never said that. Paul never said that. John never said that.

Daniel 12:2 And many of them that sleep in the dust of the earth shall awake, some to everlasting life, and some to shame and everlasting contempt.
Matthew 25:46
46 And these shall go away into everlasting punishment: but the righteous into life eternal.
1 Corinthians 6:9-10
9 Know ye not that the unrighteous shall not inherit the kingdom of God? Be not deceived: neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor effeminate, nor abusers of themselves with mankind,
10 Nor thieves, nor covetous, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor extortioners, shall inherit the kingdom of God.
Revelation 21:3-4
3 And I heard a great voice out of heaven saying, Behold, the tabernacle of God is with men, and he will dwell with them, and they shall be his people, and God himself shall be with them, and be their God.
4 And God shall wipe away all tears from their eyes; and there shall be no more death, neither sorrow, nor crying, neither shall there be any more pain: for the former things are passed away.

Revelation 21:8
8 But the fearful, and unbelieving, and the abominable, and murderers, and whoremongers, and sorcerers, and idolaters, and all liars, shall have their part in the lake which burneth with fire and brimstone: which is the second death.​

All those verses, erroneous translations included, have been addressed before. For example:

Where does Paul ever qualify his warnings about who cannot enter the kingdom of God by saying "not until they repent & cease being unrighteous?" I can't seem to find that
qualification anywhere in Paul's writings. Do you suppose that Paul forgot to put that in and that is why unis today have to interject that into every one of Paul's warnings?

It's right in front of your eyes, if you read the next verse after those you quoted:

1 Cor 6:9-11

"Know ye not that THE UNRIGHTEOUS shall not inherit the kingdom of God? Be not deceived: neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor effeminate, nor abusers of themselves with mankind, Nor thieves, nor covetous, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor extortioners, shall inherit the kingdom of God."

"And SUCH WERE SOME OF YOU: but ye are washed, but ye are sanctified, but ye are justified in the name of the Lord Jesus, and by the Spirit of our God."

As a commentator says:

"Wait a minute. If the unrighteous shall not inherit the kingdom of God, why does Paul say "and such were some of you?" If they were unrighteous, then how did they inherit the kingdom?"

"They had to be cleansed first, of course. As long as anyone is not cleansed, they have no part inside. But once cleansed, they they entered the kingdom."

So the passages you quoted are perfectly harmonious with universal salvation.

https://www.tentmaker.org/books/hope_beyond_hell.pdf
Unique Proof For Christian, Biblical Universalism

 

[nolidad]

What are you trying to say? Do you have any Greek qualifications?

One year of Koine greek in bible college and access to greek language books and grammar guides. YOu?

It does not deny that all will eventually believe & have their sins taken away. On the contrary the same writer already wrote two chapters before:

Well if they are the elect yes they will change, but that is a different issue. But it does not say all will repent. I have posted the verses that shows what happens when one dies in unbelief! YOu have yet to show a verse that shows after death one can repent. Even the account of Lazarus and the rich man shows that while Paradise was open and the lost in the place of torments could see them, they could not repent and switch sides. The burden of proof still lies on you.

And all your literal translations show that the unbeliever shall not see eternal life! You are not going fine linen on me and are trying to say that aionion life (aionios zoe) is a quality of life!

Also the form of the greek would be written this way in English showing the verb in all its parsed from.

"But he that keeps on in disbelief will not ever see life..."

It is not a present tense thing that is a potential but a statement declaring that those who die in unbelief shall not see life!

Clearly it is "time limited". All were at one time "unbelievers" with the "wrath of God" on them. Yet many of those unbelievers became believers. These believers no longer have the "wrath of God" on them. There - was - a "time limit" to how long the "wrath of God" was on them. And likewise there was a "time limit" till those who "shall not see life" did in fact "see life".

Even apostates who had once believed are being sought by God for salvation & being corrected for their own good:

1 Tim.1:19 holding on to faith and a good conscience, which some have rejected and so have suffered shipwreck with regard to the faith. 20 Among them are Hymenaeus and Alexander, whom I have handed over to Satan to be taught not to blaspheme.…

These are not apostates! You need to learn that apostates are those who only had a form of the faith but were never saved!

And believers cannot lose thier salvation- but that is a different topic for a different thread.

YOu need to learn that the believers are the chosen from the foundation of the world!

The same phrase, and Greek words, for "shame everlasting"(aionios) in Isa.54:4 occur again at Dan.12:2 LXX, which i have higlighted within the brackets:

Dan.12:2 καὶ πολλοὶ τῶν καθευδόντων ἐν γῆς χώματι ἐξεγερθήσονται οὗτοι εἰς ζωὴν αἰώνιον καὶ οὗτοι εἰς ὀνειδισμὸν καὶ εἰς [αἰσχύνην αἰώνιον]

Isa.54:4 μὴ φοβοῦ ὅτι κατῃσχύνθης μηδὲ ἐντραπῇς ὅτι ὠνειδίσθης ὅτι [αἰσχύνην αἰώνιον] ἐπιλήσῃ καὶ ὄνειδος τῆς χηρείας σου οὐ μὴ μνησθήσῃ

Kata Biblon Wiki Lexicon - ??????? - shame/disgrace/dishonor (n.)

Strong's Greek: 152. ??????? (aischuné) -- shame

In Isa.54:4 aionios/eonian is finite: "For shame everlasting[eonian] you shall forget".

Examples of aionios as a finite duration in Koine Greek:

Two Questions
Does aionios always mean eternal in ancient Koine Greek? (paradise, Gospel, hell) - Christianity - - City-Data Forum

If Jesus wished to express endless punishment, then He would have used expressions such as "endless", "no end" & "never be saved" as per:

Most of your passages are referring to the OT saints and their adherence to the law!

And I have explained that aionios if modifed means an undefined time period! Just like the OT word owlam which describes God as eternal. It also means an undefined time if modified.

And the greek word for endless, no end, etc. is aionion or aionios (depending on construct)

You rteachers play fast and loose with rules of grammar and convince you !

But Matt 25:46

Mat 25:46

And these shall go away into everlasting punishment: but the righteous into life eternal. or any of the 32 English translations I could use declare that however long aionios kolasis is, that is the same as aionios zoe is. both are identical construct so they are both carrying the same meaning.

And you should check which writings of Origens you wish to use! Half of his works he repented of because even he admitted they were heretical.

Some of the topics he repented of:

Jesus was an inferior being to the father
Jesus was not eternal
The lake of fire is not forever.
annihilationism

And Aristotle and Plato do not agtee with Christ and the thousands of native greek scholars who disagree with their philosophical and not grammatical conclusions.

And beneficial punishment is paideia or chastening!

kolasis can mean correction but even if this is correction it is aionios or age long correction. And what age is the correction taking place? The eternal age!!!! So it is a non ending correction.

 

[nolidad]

That is besides the point that God's wrath can be corrective. You provided no proof that it cannot be corrective in Jn.3:36.

One cannot prove a negative! It is up to you to show that it is corrective and only of limited duration! Remember this correction happens after time ends and eternity is "restored" (though eternity is always going, time is but a dip in eternity).

So you need to show what aionios kolasis is temporary in Mt. 25:46 and aionios zoe is never ending in the same passage when they are of the same construct. IOW why should we toss aside normal understanding of how words are used!

1 Co.15:22 says "in Christ ALL", not "all in Christ". You have it backwards.

Now you are arguing which is correct: potatoe or potato both are!

 

[nolidad]

Who says that? Why don't you leave the just judgement & how long it will be up to these children's creator, Love Omnipotent.

I have! He wrote how long the punishment lasts! It is in a book called the Bible!

Obviously not. Does it say he was screaming at the top of his lungs as his toe nails were being pulled out?

It doesn't say that is what will happen in the Lake of fire either! Botha re fire and torment and no rest day nor night! Do you know something God did not inspire His writers to write?

Here ya go:

UR verses:

Unique Proof For Christian, Biblical Universalism

75 UR verses + 100 proofs + 150 reasons etc:
Web Online Help

213 Questions Without Answers:
Questions Without Answers

Ahh when you cannot dazzle with brilliance, bury in a blizzard!

Well this shall be my last reply to you until I can find the time to slog through all this stuff and diagnosis it and rip it apart and see what makes it tick. and being confident, will be able to tell you why they have erred!

Until then- Go find some lost, obey the command of Jesus, and tell them how much He loves them and they can have their sins forgiven if they will turn to Him and trust His death burial and physical resurrection as the only acceptable payment for their sin debt before Almighty god!

 

[Der Alte]

All those verses, erroneous translations included, have been addressed before. For example:

Which verse(s) are translated erroneously? How do you know when a verse is translated wrong? Are you an expert in Greek?

It's right in front of your eyes, if you read the next verse after those you quoted:
1 Cor 6:9-11
"Know ye not that THE UNRIGHTEOUS shall not inherit the kingdom of God? Be not deceived: neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor effeminate, nor abusers of themselves with mankind, Nor thieves, nor covetous, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor extortioners, shall inherit the kingdom of God."
"And SUCH WERE SOME OF YOU: but ye are washed, but ye are sanctified, but ye are justified in the name of the Lord Jesus, and by the Spirit of our God."
As a commentator says:
"Wait a minute. If the unrighteous shall not inherit the kingdom of God, why does Paul say "and such were some of you?" If they were unrighteous, then how did they inherit the kingdom?"
"They had to be cleansed first, of course. As long as anyone is not cleansed, they have no part inside. But once cleansed, they they entered the kingdom."
So the passages you quoted are perfectly harmonious with universal salvation.

Please explain to me how vs. 11 proves that the unrighteous fornicators, idolaters, adulterers, effeminate, abusers of themselves with mankind, thieves, covetous, drunkards, revilers, extortioners etc in vss. 9-10 will inherit the kingdom of God?
I read it as saying they might inherit if they get cleansed.

 

[FineLinen]

One year of Koine greek in bible college and access to greek language books and grammar guides. YOu?



Well if they are the elect yes they will change, but that is a different issue. But it does not say all will repent. I have posted the verses that shows what happens when one dies in unbelief! YOu have yet to show a verse that shows after death one can repent. Even the account of Lazarus and the rich man shows that while Paradise was open and the lost in the place of torments could see them, they could not repent and switch sides. The burden of proof still lies on you.

And all your literal translations show that the unbeliever shall not see eternal life! You are not going fine linen on me and are trying to say that aionion life (aionios zoe) is a quality of life!

Also the form of the greek would be written this way in English showing the verb in all its parsed from.

"But he that keeps on in disbelief will not ever see life..."

It is not a present tense thing that is a potential but a statement declaring that those who die in unbelief shall not see life!




These are not apostates! You need to learn that apostates are those who only had a form of the faith but were never saved!

And believers cannot lose thier salvation- but that is a different topic for a different thread.

YOu need to learn that the believers are the chosen from the foundation of the world!



Most of your passages are referring to the OT saints and their adherence to the law!

And I have explained that aionios if modifed means an undefined time period! Just like the OT word owlam which describes God as eternal. It also means an undefined time if modified.

And the greek word for endless, no end, etc. is aionion or aionios (depending on construct)

You rteachers play fast and loose with rules of grammar and convince you !

But Matt 25:46

Mat 25:46

And these shall go away into everlasting punishment: but the righteous into life eternal. or any of the 32 English translations I could use declare that however long aionios kolasis is, that is the same as aionios zoe is. both are identical construct so they are both carrying the same meaning.

And you should check which writings of Origens you wish to use! Half of his works he repented of because even he admitted they were heretical.

Some of the topics he repented of:

Jesus was an inferior being to the father
Jesus was not eternal
The lake of fire is not forever.
annihilationism

And Aristotle and Plato do not agtee with Christ and the thousands of native greek scholars who disagree with their philosophical and not grammatical conclusions.

And beneficial punishment is paideia or chastening!

kolasis can mean correction but even if this is correction it is aionios or age long correction. And what age is the correction taking place? The eternal age!!!! So it is a non ending correction.

A non ending correction?

An eternal age?

You big silly!

Rather then attempting to disclose the foundation for such foolishness, please tell us what are the 5 (five) qualifications for aionios kolasis, they are?

 

[ClementofA]

YOu have yet to show a verse that shows after death one can repent.

Because you reject all the verses for universalism. They imply postmortem repentance.

Even the account of Lazarus and the rich man shows that while Paradise was open and the lost in the place of torments could see them, they could not repent and switch sides. The burden of proof still lies on you.

I've already addressed that & no one has ever refuted my post.

As for burden of proof, it lies with those who think Love Omnipotent will fry billions forever or do an eternal Hitler job on them.

And all your literal translations show that the unbeliever shall not see eternal life!

No version says that.

Also the form of the greek would be written this way in English showing the verb in all its parsed from.

"But he that keeps on in disbelief will not ever see life..."

Contrariwise he that believes will see life. Nothing there rules out postmortem repentance & faith.

It is not a present tense thing that is a potential but a statement declaring that those who die in unbelief shall not see life!

Jn.3:36 doesn't speak of "who die in". You made that up.

These are not apostates! You need to learn that apostates are those who only had a form of the faith but were never saved!

If that were true, then they rejected their faith, yet Love Omnipotent is still seeking to save the lost sheep. How much more so for those of Jn.3:36 who never had faith to begin with.

YOu need to learn that the believers are the chosen from the foundation of the world!

I was already aware of that.

And the greek word for endless, no end, etc. is aionion or aionios (depending on construct)

Nope. See Lk.1:33 for "no end". There's no aionion there.

And these shall go away into everlasting punishment: but the righteous into life eternal. or any of the 32 English translations I could use declare that however long aionios kolasis is, that is the same as aionios zoe is. both are identical construct so they are both carrying the same meaning.

Evidently you don't know how adjectives work:

Is aionion necessarily coequal in duration with aionion (in Mt.25:46)?

And you should check which writings of Origens you wish to use! Half of his works he repented of because even he admitted they were heretical.

Some of the topics he repented of:

Jesus was an inferior being to the father
Jesus was not eternal
The lake of fire is not forever.
annihilationism

Why don't you document that properly with quotes, links, references, etc?

Augustine thought babies would burn in hell forever:

Augustine's ignorance & error re Matthew 25:46

And Aristotle and Plato do not agtee with Christ and the thousands of native greek scholars who disagree with their philosophical and not grammatical conclusions.

Say what!

And beneficial punishment is paideia or chastening!

kolasis can mean correction but even if this is correction it is aionios or age long correction. And what age is the correction taking place? The eternal age!!!! So it is a non ending correction.

Scripture speaks of the coming age & multiple coming ages. The age to come will be followed by at least one more, so it is finite.

One thing God has spoken, two things I have heard: “Power belongs to you, God, and with you, Lord, is unfailing love”; Psalm 62:11b-12a

"The simplest way to know if someone is preaching the gospel of grace is to evaluate whether the teaching glorifies our Lord Jesus."

Love Omnipotent loves you more than you can imagine!

Unique Proof For Christian, Biblical Universalism

If you want to know how much God loves you, look to the incarnation, life, sufferings, and crucifixion of Christ. His love & power for you are greater than the size of the universe:

 

[nolidad]

Im still waiting to hear how it would’ve been better for Judas if he had never been born if he is destined to receive eternal life in heaven.

Well you won't hear it from C of A, FL, or ST.S., they are following a funny theologyu.

 

[nolidad]

Sorry Noli: The word sōzō is NOT conditional. It is not a could be be or a may be!

The God of Glory does not deal in possibilities. He IS Saviour, He is NOT a potential Saviour.

"He shall shall save His people from their sins."

Yup, He shall sōzō His people from their sins.

sōzō =

To keep save & sound.

To rescue from danger & destruction.

Only for those who choose to ignore what the Master actually said and then put their words in His mouth!

 

[nolidad]

A non ending correction?

An eternal age?

You big silly!

Rather then attempting to disclose the foundation for such foolishness, please tell us what are the 5 (five) qualifications for aionios kolasis, they are?

As soon as you show that aionios means quality of zoe and quality of kolasis and not a duration!

And why aionios kolasis is temporary while aionios zoe is never ending.

It is sad you never bothered to do more than a cursory look at koine greek.

 

[ClementofA]

One cannot prove a negative!

Really? Read this stuff:

cannot prove a negative! - Google Search

It is up to you to show that it is corrective and only of limited duration!

Been there, done that. You remain in unbelief.

Remember this correction happens after time ends and eternity is "restored" (though eternity is always going, time is but a dip in eternity).

If time ends, then the aionion times (Titus 1:2, etc) end & all references to aionion in the Scriptures are finite. So you just "proved" that the "punishment" of Mt.25:46 is finite. Good work!

So you need to show what aionios kolasis is temporary in Mt. 25:46 and aionios zoe is never ending in the same passage when they are of the same construct.

You already showed it for me. See above.

IOW why should we toss aside normal understanding of how words are used!

Again you appear not to understand how adjectives work. See my previous post to you.

Nice chit chat. Now time for some serious Bible study & research.

 

[ClementofA]

Well this shall be my last reply to you until I can find the time to slog through all this stuff and diagnosis it and rip it apart and see what makes it tick. and being confident, will be able to tell you why they have erred!

If i were you i'd stick with my own comments posted here, rather than assuming i agree with everything at any link posted.

Until then- Go find some lost, obey the command of Jesus, and tell them how much He loves them and they can have their sins forgiven if they will turn to Him and trust His death burial and physical resurrection as the only acceptable payment for their sin debt before Almighty god!

There could be some lost at CF reading posts.

The C-19 situation in your area may restrict such activities.

 

[Der Alte]

As soon as you show that aionios means quality of zoe and quality of kolasis and not a duration!
And why aionios kolasis is temporary while aionios zoe is never ending.
It is sad you never bothered to do more than a cursory look at koine greek.

Mind if I offer a little assistance?
The Greek word "kolasis" occurs twice in the NT. Some heterodox religious groups argue that "kolasis" means correction.

1 John 4:18 There is no fear in love; but perfect love casteth out fear: because fear hath torment.[κολασιν/kolasin] He that feareth is not made perfect in love​

Although the word "kolasin" occurs in this verse there is no correction. The one who has "kolasin" is not corrected, not made perfect.
And there is also this.
Greek is now, and has always been, the language of the Eastern Greek Orthodox church. Who, better than the native Greek speaking scholars who translated the EOB, knows the correct meaning of Greek words, e.g. “aionios” and “kolasis?”
…..Note, in the EOB, Paul uses “αιωνιως/aionios,” in 1 Tim 1:17 synonymous with “αιδιος/aidios” in Rom 1:20, see below.

The Eastern/Greek Orthodox Bible EOB—New Testament 96
Matthew 25:46 Then he will answer them saying ‘Amen. I tell you: as much as you did not do it to one of the least of these, you did not do it to me.' “These [[ones on the left]] will go away into eternal punishment.[κολασιν αιονιον/kolasin aiōnion] but the righteous into eternal life.
= = = = = = =
Romans 1:20 For since the creation of the world, his invisible things are clearly seen. They perceived through created things, even his everlasting [τε αιδιος/te aidios] power and divinity.
= = = = = = = =
1 Timothy 1:17 Now, to the eternal [των αιωνων/tōn aiōnōn] King. immortal. invisible, to God who alone is wise, be honor and glory unto ages of ages. Amen.
In 1 Tim 1:17 Paul not only uses "aionios" synonymous with "aidios," in Rom 1:20, but also defines it by pairing it with "immortal" in the same verse.
https://azbyka.ru/otechnik/books/or...tament-(The-Eastern-Greek-Orthodox-Bible).pdf
The Eastern/Greek Orthodox Bible EOB—New Testament 96 can be D/L at the link above. If anyone chooses to consult the EOB version I suggest they read the preface which summarizes the extensive Greek scholarship supporting this translation.



​

 

[ClementofA]

Im still waiting to hear how it would’ve been better for Judas if he had never been born if he is destined to receive eternal life in heaven.

Thanks for asking.

In Matt. 18:6, 26:24 and Luk 10:12, see above, Jesus teaches that there is a punishment worse than death or nonexistence.[/indent]

No, He doesn't.

• “But whoso shall offend one of these little ones which believe in me, it were better for him that a millstone were hanged about his neck, and that he were drowned in the depth of the sea.” Matthew 18:6

In Mt.18:6 is the lame warning of a punishment which is compared to mere drowning, which is nothing compared to being kept alive for the sole purpose of being tortured for all the "endless" ages of eternity that have "no end" & "never" cease. Jesus says it is "better for them to have a large millstone hung around their neck and to be drowned in the depths of the sea". OTOH, if He had been a believer in endless punishment, He could have expressed that by saying it is better for them to have never lived, never been conceived, or that their parents had never known (had sex with) one another. Compare this anti-biblical Jewish view that the Lord Jesus Christ, Love Omnipotent, rejected:

"To every individual is apportioned two shares, one in hell and one in paradise. At death, however, the righteous man's portion in hell is exchanged, so that he has two in heaven, while the reverse is true in the case of sinners (Ḥag. 15a). Hence it would have been better for the latter not to have lived at all (Yeb. 63b)." GEHENNA - JewishEncyclopedia.com

• “woe unto that man by whom the Son of man is betrayed! it had been good for that man if he had not been born. ” Matthew 26:24

Better not to have been born. Not to have never existed.

Jesus said it would have been better if Judas had not been born. He did not say it would have been better if Judas had never been conceived or existed. The latter opposes universalism, the former does not necessarily do so. One who dies in the womb without being born has existed. To not be born & die before being born means that one existed.

It would be better to be (1) concieved (& therefore to exist) & not be born than (2) to be born & live a wicked life (e.g. Judas Iscariot), because the former is in better standing with God than the latter (compare, for example, Lk.12:47-48). Judas will suffer the wrath of God of which the child in utero, who was never born, is not deserving. Therefore, for Judas, it would have been better if he had never been born, but died in his mother's womb. But, though he will suffer the wrath of God, this does not rule out the possibility of his ultimate salvation. Therefore Mt.26:24 fails as a proof text against him being saved.

• “But I say unto you, that it shall be more tolerable in that day for Sodom, than for that city.” Luke 10:12
In Matt. 18:6, 26:24 and Luk 10:12, see above, Jesus teaches that there is a fate worse than death or nonexistence.

None of those verses refer to a "fate worse than...nonexistence". And a "fate worse than death" need not be endless tortures & is nowhere near being similar to endless tortures. Compare:

Heb.10:28 A man that hath set at nought Moses' law dieth without compassion on the word of two or three witnesses: 29 of how much sorer punishment, think ye, shall he be judged worthy, who hath trodden under foot the Son of God, and hath counted the blood of the covenant, wherewith he was sanctified, an unholy thing, and hath done despite unto the Spirit of grace?

Stoning to death is not a very sore or long lasting punishment. People suffered far worse deaths via the torture methods of the eternal hell believing Medieval Inquisitionists and the German Nazis under Hitler.

Therefore, if the writer of Hebrews believed that wicked, rebellious, Christ rejectors would be punished with something so monstrous as being endlessly annihilated or tormented, he would not have chosen to compare their punishment to something so lame as being stoned to death. Clearly he did not believe Love Omnipotent is an unfeeling terminator machine or sadist who abandons forever the beings He created in His own image & likeness so easily.

One thing God has spoken, two things I have heard: “Power belongs to you, God, and with you, Lord, is unfailing love”; Psalm 62:11b-12a

Love Omnipotent loves you more than you can imagine!

If you want to know how much God loves you, look to the incarnation, life, sufferings, and crucifixion of Christ. His love & power for you are greater than the size of the universe:

 

[ClementofA]

Well you won't hear it from C of A, FL, or ST.S., they are following a funny theologyu.

It's been addressed many times here. See my previous post for instance.

 

[ClementofA]

Which verse(s) are translated erroneously? How do you know when a verse is translated wrong? Are you an expert in Greek?

Mt.25:46, KJV, for one.

How do i know? By the will & grace of God. By years of prayer, serious study of what the experts say & Scripture.

What do you know?

You know that you admitted that scripture appears to teach universalism in a number of passages.

Please explain to me how vs. 11 proves that the unrighteous fornicators, idolaters, adulterers, effeminate, abusers of themselves with mankind, thieves, covetous, drunkards, revilers, extortioners etc in vss. 9-10 will inherit the kingdom of God?
I read it as saying they might inherit if they get cleansed.

Irrelevant to my point below & answered many times.

Please admit you did "find" it below after i explained it to you below. And that there was no "interjecting" here, but your failure to read the context & understand the passage:

Where does Paul ever qualify his warnings about who cannot enter the kingdom of God by saying "not until they repent & cease being unrighteous?" I can't seem to find that
qualification anywhere in Paul's writings. Do you suppose that Paul forgot to put that in and that is why unis today have to interject that into every one of Paul's warnings?

It's right in front of your eyes, if you read the next verse after those you quoted:

1 Cor 6:9-11

"Know ye not that THE UNRIGHTEOUS shall not inherit the kingdom of God? Be not deceived: neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor effeminate, nor abusers of themselves with mankind, Nor thieves, nor covetous, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor extortioners, shall inherit the kingdom of God."

"And SUCH WERE SOME OF YOU: but ye are washed, but ye are sanctified, but ye are justified in the name of the Lord Jesus, and by the Spirit of our God."

As a commentator says:

"Wait a minute. If the unrighteous shall not inherit the kingdom of God, why does Paul say "and such were some of you?" If they were unrighteous, then how did they inherit the kingdom?"

"They had to be cleansed first, of course. As long as anyone is not cleansed, they have no part inside. But once cleansed, they they entered the kingdom."

So the passages you quoted are perfectly harmonious with universal salvation.

https://www.tentmaker.org/books/hope_beyond_hell.pdf
Unique Proof For Christian, Biblical Universalism

 

[ClementofA]

Mind if I offer a little assistance?
The Greek word "kolasis" occurs twice in the NT. Some heterodox religious groups argue that "kolasis" means correction.

1 John 4:18 There is no fear in love; but perfect love casteth out fear: because fear hath torment.[κολασιν/kolasin] He that feareth is not made perfect in love​

Although the word "kolasin" occurs in this verse there is no correction. The one who has "kolasin" is not corrected, not made perfect.

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Der Alter said: "The one who has "kolasin" is not corrected, not made perfect."

That's not what the verse says. Instead it says:

"He that feareth is not made perfect in love"

That doesn't deny that he is being corrected.

Just because someone is not "perfect" does not mean they are not being corrected.

1 John 4:18 Fear is not in love, but perfect love is casting out fear, for fear has chastening. Now he who is fearing is not perfected in love. (CLV)

 

[nolidad]

It's been addressed many times here. See my previous post for instance.

Well read two of the articles you posted:

Proof for the Teaching of Christian, Biblical Universalism and:

Questions Without Answers On Hell

Without going into the minutae of the many problems I will summarize by saying this:

He mixes general statements with specific statements.

He suggests that aionios in the same form and same sentence can mean two different time frames.

He doesn't offer any proof for repentance after death, which defies hebrews 9.

At one point he emphasizes understanding the who what where when and whys of passages and then ignores that important rule many many times.

He mixes Gods dealings with believers with unbelievers.

He finds obscure people to support UR translations of greek words that are not accepted by nearly all scholarship.

He quotes works from the early fathers that were repented of by the author.

He aligns himself more with the translating work of the Watchtower (which is not recognized by any but JW's) than proven known linguistic teachers.

He emphasizes the restitution of all things while ignoring the absolute passages that show that the restitution occurs after death, teh grave and the unbelievers are all tossed into th elake of fire--immediately after those three categories are put into the Lake of Fire.

He makes a big deal of the difference between kolasis and timora. But what he fails to tell the readers is that while kolasis ORIGINALLY meant pruning of a tree or shrub- it developed (as was in the times of Jesus) to mean punishment! And timora was originally meant as citizenship with its rights and privileges. But by the time of Jesus it came to mean the denial or rights.

And Timora and kolasis appear a total of three times (2 kolasis 1timora). Timora is never used with aionios!

I can go further and deepr, but this is enough to let me know he is translating to promote an agenda instead of building an agenda based on translation!

 

[nolidad]

That doesn't deny that he is being corrected.

Just because someone is not "perfect" does not mean they are not being corrected.

But according to Hebrews- The children of God have already once for all time been perfected aionios!

 

[ClementofA]

But according to Hebrews- The children of God have already once for all time been perfected aionios!

Paul says:

Not as though I had already attained, either were already perfect: but I follow after, if that I may apprehend that for which also I am apprehended of Christ Jesus. Phil.3:12

Aionios doesn't appear to occur in Heb.10:14:

Hebrews 10:14 Greek Text Analysis