That means God enlightens some to obey the Gospel and the rest don’t get that enlightenment.
Therefore God will have mercy on whom He will have mercy.Actually the Biblical and Reformed view is what I posited above. That we are all condemned damned sinners deserving of God’s Judgement as children of wrath. That is our equal setting before a Holy God. That God has mercy on whom He has mercy and compassion on whom He has compassion.
No.
In Romans 9, verses 14-16, it says:
What shall we say then? Is there unrighteousness with God? Certainly not! For He says to Moses, “I will have mercy on whomever I will have mercy, and I will have compassion on whomever I will have compassion.” So then it is not of him who wills, nor of him who runs, but of God who shows mercy.
Here Paul maintains that even though some Jews would be lost, there is no unrighteousness with God. He is certainly allowed to have mercy on whomever HE WILLS.
He does not have to conform to Jewish traditional thought, and save all those–and only those–who circumcise their children. God’s Word tells us plainly the man upon whom GOD WILLS to have mercy:
He who covers his sins will not prosper, But whoever confesses and forsakes them will have mercy. (Proverbs 28:13)
For I, the LORD your God, am a jealous God, visiting the iniquity of the fathers upon the children to the third and fourth generations of those who hate Me, but showing mercy to thousands, to those who love Me and keep My commandments. (Exodus 20:5-6)
Blessed are the merciful, for they shall obtain mercy. (Matthew 5:7)
Likewise, Scripture tells us who will NOT have mercy:
Those who regard worthless idols forsake their own mercy. (Jonah 2:8)
For judgment is without mercy to the one who has shown no mercy. (James 2:13)
Because the majority of the Jews were refusing to repent and rejecting Jesus Christ, clinging to the idol of Jewish nationalism as a means of salvation, God was under no obligation to be merciful to them.
You said:
As dead in our sins by God’s mercy and love He makes us alive in Jesus Christ by taking out the heart of stone and giving us a heart of flesh. And by doing so we can truly choose Him by godly sorrow leading to repentance. That’s all Biblical.
Except this is not the reality for any Calvinist I have talked with so far because most agree that King David was saved while he committed his sins of adultery and murder (Which means they are teaching a person can sin and still be saved on some level).
Where our views differ is you believe everyone is put into this state to choose God freely and can still reject Him. Whereas Paul says those God calls He Justifies and Glorifies. Also Paul speaks of the bondage of the human will in Romans 6. We are either in bondage to sin leading to death or in bondage to righteousness.
A person who is a slave to righteousness means that they always do what is good and right and they do not sin in thought, and action. Their beliefs cannot even lead a person to sin. But how does that work in Calvinism? Do you not believe it is possible to commit grievous sin on some level and still be saved? Was not King David saved in his sins of adultery and murder according to your belief?
You said:
With this Biblical bondage of the human will qualified, it explains why some reject the Gospel and some accept the Gospel.
What you believe is totally illogical. There would be no purpose of the judgment if God was the One who forced some to do righteousness and He forced others to be in a state of sin.
Even in your version of Arminian Prevenient Grace, there is human free will but two results. The first being belief and obedience to the Gospel and the second being not to come into the Light and rejection of the Gospel.
You then mention God enlightens some or helps them out not taking away their free will. Yet we still have the people who are not helped out and remain condemned. This is still God calling some and not others to conversion and you have the same problem with fairness and justice as some free will is better than others.
Unless of course your point was there is some inner goodness in some of us before conversion which enables our free will?
The Bible talks about how the Gentiles even do by nature the things contained in the Law (i.e. the Moral Law). If you turn on the news, you will see unbelieving Gentiles talking about the immorality of murder, theft, sexual abuse, lying in certain cases, etc. So yes; God has given men some level of right and wrong as a part of him. Yes, all men are sinful, but they also have a sense of right and wrong to them, too. They know certain things are right and wrong. God tells that faithful believer, "Well done good and faithful servant, enter into the joy of thy Lord." Why would God need to say this if He mind zapped them into being a puppet to obey Him? It makes no sense. Would a hypnotist say "well done" to their patient in whom they hypnotized to take action on something they wanted them to do? No. They were just falling their programming.
Source used:
Understanding Romans 9 Without the Calvinist Spin