The Father sows the seed , Christ, the word, the true Light in every heart, but not all are in union with that seed.
See, this isn't what Christ taught in the parable. What does it mean, precisely, to have "Christ sown in the heart"? Is he there like the Holy Spirit is present in the heart of every genuine believer? Or is Christ only
partially in residence in people's hearts? You know, just sort of idly loitering, waiting to see what'll happen. Or is he within people actively transforming them as the Holy Spirit does to the born again? If he is, how is it that people are unable to retain him, as Christ teaches in his parable? How do people know in the first place who Christ is and what he is doing in their heart when God sows him there? When you hold the view you do about the parable, you must greatly multiply explanations which is generally a sign, in my experience, that you've got the wrong end of the stick.
Christ also repeatedly teaches in the parable that people are responding to the word they
hear. Is Jesus a sound, then? Does God sow a divine sound into the hearts of people? What
is it they hear, exactly? Could it be they hear the Gospel, the divine truths of the kingdom of God, that Jesus has been preaching? It seems very evident to me that this is the case. And this view of the parable does not require any of the scriptural and explanatory gymnastics through which you are having to go to make your case.
Although scripture conveys the words of truth that witness to the inner witness of the word.
Ah, so now you seem to be acknowledging what I've been saying. It is the kingdom preaching of Christ, heard and accepted by his listeners, that sows the seed of God's truth into their hearts. And when they accept the truth of Christ's teaching with a "noble and good heart," they will come to a saving faith in him. Now that is much more in accord with the parable than "the Father sowing Jesus in their hearts" stuff.
Wrong I believe strongly in the Trinity doctrine, and i am strongly against Modalism and Oneness theology. You misunderstood me.
I'm glad to hear it!
"1.) How does the devil have power over Christ in the hearts of men such that he can snatch Christ out of their hearts and prevent them from being saved? (See verse 12)
2 Cor 4 about the devil blinding the minds of them that believe not, is part of that answer."
Surely Christ is more powerful than the devil and cannot be simply snatched away from the hearts of people as you seem to think Christ taught in his parable of the Sower? Why and how would Satan have such power over Christ and the work of the Father? How is Satan able to so completely confound the sowing of Christ in peoples' hearts by blinding them as you suggest? Your response above is extremely weak in explaining and justifying your thinking.
"2.) How can people be saved without there first being an atonement for sin? Christ is the Saviour who saves because of his atoning work on the cross.
Christ accomplished the work for those of the past who looked for Gods righteousness to save them. jesus said blessed are those who do hunger and thirst after righteousness, they shall be filled. This righteousness is revealed in the gospel, being witness by the law and the prophets."
My question above goes to the heart of the assertion you made in your OP to this thread. You contend that Judas was actually saved before salvation was available to him. Your answer here does not really explain how; it's just a collection of loosely-related statements that don't directly address my question at all.
Judas died
before Christ did. He died a guilty betrayer of Christ. How, then, can he be saved? How is there salvation for Judas when, described by Christ as a "devil," (
Jn. 6:70, 71) he died, unrepentant, in his sins?
The word of God does not always refer to scripture.
I never said that it did. In fact, I have explained in earlier posts that the term "word" has a variety of meanings in Scripture.
it can be the spoken word and that word can speak in the heart from God. This word is inward as well, even before men had scripture. This word is the seed sown in the hearts of all men from Adam until today.
I agree with you that "word" may refer to that which is spoken. I have no idea, though, what you mean by "word" being "inward...before men had Scripture." And, unfortunately, you don't explain what you mean, except to repeat your "word sown in the hearts of men" stuff that, as you've explained it so far, is vague and confused.
Jesus is never referred to in the Bible as the "perfect law of liberty." As God he is the Source of this law, but he is not the law itself any more than a baker is the bread he bakes. The "perfect law of liberty" is a description of the Gospel and the doctrines and principles of the New Covenant revealed in Scripture.
You show that you have much to learn. these spiritual things we are talking about are not seen but in the spirit, Consider
"...in Christ Jesus, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit. 2 For the law of the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus hath made me free from the law of sin and death.3 For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh:4 That the righteousness of the law might be fulfilled in us, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit." ( Romans 8:1-4 KJV)
The law of the spirit of life in Christ Jesus is the response to your error. Jesus is the way the truth and the life and the truth will make you free. or in liberty.
Sorry, but as an "answer" this is not much of answer at all. Nothing in the passage from Romans 8 says, "Jesus is the perfect law of liberty." Yes, we find liberty from the condemnation and death of OT law in Christ, but this does not equate to saying that Jesus is himself the perfect law of liberty. That would be silly. "The perfect law of liberty" is a way of referring to
Scripture, not Christ. These two things are closely related, but they are not identical.
You are very far from spiritual understanding in many things and confound yourself not even understanding the seed as the word of God sown in the heart.
Yeah...no. I understand very well the role of Scripture - the word of God, not the
Word of God - in bringing me into relationship with God through Christ. But I don't confuse or conflate the word of God with the Word of God as you do. They aren't the same thing.
No you are the one to be rebuked, you call the anointing silliness.
No, I call
your use of the term silly. The "anointing" is the Holy Spirit present within every genuinely born-again person. It is not some mystical, arcane power of enlightenment.
This just shows your ignorance, consider in
Deuteronomy 30. This word, was in their hearts even before the law and it was not something new, or hidden as we read.
Deuteronomy 30 doesn't show this. The "voice of the Lord" to the Israelites was
Moses, not Christ. (Read
verse 8) When Moses says (in
verse 14), "The word is very near you, even in your mouth and in your heart," he is referring to
the commands he has just given to the Israelites from God. Moses says:
Deuteronomy 30:11
11 "For this commandment which I command you today is not too mysterious for you, nor is it far off.
But what saith it? The word is nigh thee, even in thy mouth, and in thy heart: that is, the word of faith, which we preach;"
Again, Paul eliminates your reading when he clarifies that the "word" he is talking about is the "word of faith,
which we preach," not Jesus. Paul's "word" are the things he is saying to believers as he preaches to them. Where, then, do you get this "Paul meant Jesus is the word" stuff from? It just isn't there in what Paul says! You must read such a thing
into his words rather than draw it out of his words.
This is how Paul interprets that section in Romans, and he reveals a great mystery that was hid.
And this is how a person wanders into falsehood. You completely ignored Paul's own clarification and instituted your own ideas instead. Yikes!
Selah.