expos4ever
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- Oct 22, 2008
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I think you are begging the question. While you have not come out and explicitly said this, I will bet you when you say "animation ceasing in a living organism" you are merely re-stating that which you need to demonstrate - that "death" does not denote the complete end of the individual in totality.Because I know the English language and the rules of grammar. Unless you're using death in a metaphorical sense, it always relates to animation ceasing in a living organism. The same is true of the Bible.
Why can't you provide a dictionary definition - from a Greek dictionary - as requested? You need to do this to make your assertion stick - you cannot expect the reader to simply accept your personal definition - we need a definition from an independent expert source (a Greek dictionary).
How does any of this support the notion that the lost end up in a state of eternal torment?Jesus used it as a way to teach a couple of truths, one of which is where we go after we die and the other was the fact that people would still not believe that he was the Messiah even after he rose from the dead. He used what he knew to be real life situations.
How do you know this? How do you know the Luke account was not a parable that has nothing to do with the afterlife? Note that there are some scholars who believe the account indeed has nothing to do with the afterlife.Lazarus was real, and so was the rich man.
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