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Isn't that tautology?
Sorry. I didn't edit it correctly.
Wasn't Christ's death a propitiation for all people?
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Isn't that tautology?
Confirms, not opposes.
Ok, we are not going to settle the debate through Lev. 23.
Sorry. I didn't edit it correctly.
Wasn't Christ's death a propitiation for all people?
I don't see why not. It sure seems to say that those people were not included in the atonement. Do you think it says something different?
Christ's propitiation was made available to all men. That we must still exercise faith despite the fact that Christ atoned for our unbelief suggests that the atonement was provisional rather than actual.
The goat was slaughtered for 'the people.'
John 3:14-18 settles the issue. As does Romans 10:9 and 1 Cor. 15.
All the people? Not the ones in Lev 23. Or non-Israelites. Why do you need to ignore that?
So John really blew it in 1 John, then. He said Christ WAS a propitiation. I guess he didn't check with you.
The ones that did not deny themselves were some of 'the people' that atonement was made for.
Non-Israelites like Noah and Abraham?
He is the atoning sacrifice for our sins, and not only for ours but also for the sins of the whole world.
I am not following your point.
So their sins were covered? That's not what Leviticus 23 indicates.
He either is or isn't an atoning sacrifice. So His death either is or isn't propitious. There's nothing potential about it.
We're going round in circles.
We must believe because Christ kind of paid for your unbelief...but not quite?
It's provisional, not actual - and it's for all men - John 3:14-18.
I'm still unclear as to how you could preach John 3:14-18 without delivering the 'bad news' of vv.1-13 (your view, not mine) in order that nobody misunderstands your interpretations of God's intentions regarding mankind. Your whole theology must be laid bare must it not?
Do you avoid John 3:14-18?
Not my fault. You brought it up. And now you are distancing yourself because it doesn't say what you thought. I wsHonestly, your track record is to beat a passage to death if you think it's detrimental to Calvinism. So obviously, this goes against what you originally thought.
Again, He's either an atoning sacrifice, or He isn't. His death is propitious, or it isn't.
We don't need to go to your latest pet passage.
I was merely recognising that you will always force a definition of which ever word is used in relation the scope of salvation. The sin offering was for 'the people', but you somehow make it 'the elect' (Lev. 16:15).
You ignored my point.
It's relevant and you have not answer it.
Were the Babylonians covered?
Actually, I'm trying to get you to stay on point. Is Christ's death propitious for everyone?