Never ever is atonement in Scripture described in terms of transferring punishment.
Your blustery posturing with it grand sweeping statements regarding Scripture betray your unfamiliarity with them.
It's hard to imagine that you do not understand the plain meaning of Isa 53:4-5, showing transference of our punishment onto Christ:
"Surely he took up our infirmities (sins),
and carried our sorrows,
yet we considered him stricken by God,
smitten by him, and afflicted.
But he was pierced for our transgressions,
he was crushed for our iniquities;
the punishment that brought us peace (with God) was upon him,
and by his wounds we are healed."
God made Christ the equivalent of the "mercy seat" that by faith in His blood, God's wrath might be held back.
Mercy Seat has meant "removal of sin by expiatory
sacrifice" since the OT was translated into Greek 300 years
before the birth of Christ.
The
Jewish translators of
the OT into the
Greek (
Septuagint, LXX)
stated a
propitiatory sacrifice in their translation of "Mercy Seat" into the Greek words
hilasterion epithema.
Hilasterion epithema refers to the lid or
cover of the Ark of the Covenant,
called kapporeth in the Hebrew.
In the Hebrew it meant the covering of, or the removal of sin (Ps 32:1) by means of expiatory (animal) sacrifice, which they translated as
epithema (cover)
in the Greek.
They added
hilasterion, which is
an adjective signifying the propitiatory, thereby translating Mercy Seat as hilasterion epithema.
Eventually, the Greek word
hilasterion stood for both Greek words hilasterion (propitiatory sacrifice) and
epithema (cover).
So the
OT Hebrew kapporeth =
Greek OT hilasterion epithema since ~300 years
before the birth of Christ =
English NT sacrificial expiatory propitiation of Christ's atonement in Ro 3:25-26.
The meaning of "Mercy Seat" as "
sacrificial expiatory propitiation" in Christ's atonement of Ro 3:25-26 is neither a faulty "misunderstanding" nor new to the Greek Scriptures, having been its meaning since they originated.
It is "misunderstanding" or new only to those who do not know the history of its translation, relying instead on the history of theology.
The NT has
always presented Christ's atonement as a
propitiatory sacrifice (Ro 3:25-26), never as a "standing in the gap" of sin.
So "sacrificial expiatory propitiation" has been the NT meaning of Christ's "atonement" in Ro 3:25-26 since the Greek NT was written, being taken from the Greek OT (LXX), which was translated from the Hebrew ~300 years before the birth of Christ.
You are the one using a human definition of Christ's "atonement," instead of going back to its Jewish translators' meaning in kapporeth and hilasterion, which is "sacrificial expiatory (kapporeth) propitiation (hilasterion)," no "standing in the gap" involved.
You are the one desperately equating Christ's atonement of Ro 3:25-26 with Moses, Aaron and Phinehas, which equating is nowhere found in Scripture.
And finally, for
a plain example in Scripture of punishment being transferred, Isa 53:5 is a good place to start.
