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Why the Protestant view of the Cross is wrong.

def

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Jesus was sent to be the lamb of God, to be sacrificed for our sins. Our sins were put on the sinless Jesus. He paid the price once and for all for our sins. God DID turn His face from Him. Jesus cried out asking why God had forsaken Him.

It happened. It is written. It's written in His Word. God's wrath was on Jesus. Jesus absorbed it so that we wouldn't. Seriously. God wouldn't lie.

1. Check out the New Covenant Jeremiah 31. I will be their God, and they will be my people.... and I will remember their sins no more. See Hebreews 10:17-18. Remember their sins no more is the remission of sins.

Therefore, the remission of individual sins is through the New Covenant.

2. Jesus death and resurrection took away the sin of the world. Adam sin is the sin of the world. "Behold the Lamb of God who takes away the sin of the world."
 
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ChristianLife08

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It is first attested as an understanding in the 1100s, but more fully developed in the 16th/17th century.

The understanding of, for example, Romans 3:25 is somewhat different; as God made Christ the equivalent of the "mercy seat" that by faith in His blood, God's wrath might be held back.

As when the Israelites were spared death by the blood of lambs smeared on the doorways. And also the sprinkling of the blood of sacrifice. In this sense, God was not angry with the lambs slain to spare the Israelites, nor the animals sacrificed in the OT. Recall, " The sacrifices of God are a broken spirit: a broken and a contrite heart, O God, you will not despise." (Psalm 51)

Just as Moses stood in the gap, and God spared the Israelites and just as God would not have destroyed Sodom and Gommorah if even 10 righteous men were found there, so the sacrifice of Christ stands for all in perpetuity, Who "was slain from the foundation of the world".

God, the Holy Trinity, is love teaches John; how can love be wrath visited upon one person of the Holy Trinity to another ?

lets address a more important issue you brought up. God and love. Of course God is love. but you're also ignoring the FACT that He is also Just, Righteous and Holy. And being as such He MUST bring about His wrath upon those who have sinned against Him. Hence, the scriptures i provided in my first post speak of Christs ATONEMENT, us being JUSTIFIED. These terms can't be used unless we have wronged God and are deserving of punishment. (i.e. His wrath) I encourage you to look at the several verses i attempted to give and study and meditate.
 
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MoreCoffee

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... For there is no distinction, since all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God; they are now justified by his grace as a gift, through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus, whom God put forward as a sacrifice of atonement by his blood, effective through faith. He did this to show his righteousness, because in his divine forbearance he had passed over the sins previously committed; it was to prove at the present time that he himself is righteous and that he justifies the one who has faith in Jesus. (Romans 3:22-26)

Exactly how does that passage teach penal substitutionary atonement?

I do not see it.

Jesus' death is described as a sacrifice for atonement but not as receiving divine punishment for sins nor as receiving God's wrath.

Since Jesus willingly went to the cross out of love for humanity there seems to be no support for PSA in the passage.

Rom. 3:25; 4:25; 5:16-20

"non responsive"
not at all. Did you reread the verses? it's a direct response and answer so that you may understand my friend. :)

Yes, I read the passages from Romans. And no, they do not constitute an answer furthermore there is no difficulty understanding your stated position on my part; I think that your stated position is wrong.
 
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LittleLambofJesus

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not at all. Did you reread the verses? it's a direct response and answer so that you may understand my friend. :)
Yes, I read the passages from Romans. And no, they do not constitute an answer furthermore there is no difficulty understanding your stated position on my part; I think that your stated position is wrong.
If you don't understand his stated position, how do you know it is wrong :D ;)

Psalm 32:9
Do not be like the horse [or] like the mule, [Which] have no understanding, which must be harnessed with bit and bridle,
Else they will not come near you.


.......
 
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Clare73

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... For there is no distinction, since all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God; they are now justified by his grace as a gift, through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus, whom God put forward as a sacrifice of atonement by his blood, effective through faith. He did this to show his righteousness, because in his divine forbearance he had passed over the sins previously committed; it was to prove at the present time that he himself is righteous and that he justifies the one who has faith in Jesus. (Romans 3:22-26)

Exactly how does that passage teach penal substitutionary atonement?
I do not see it.
Jesus' death is described as a sacrifice for atonement but not as receiving divine punishment for sins nor as receiving God's wrath.
Since Jesus willingly went to the cross out of love for humanity there seems to be no support for PSA in the passage.
Willingly going to the cross has no bearing on "PSA."
Provide answers to the questions below on Ro 3:25-26 which are consistent with the text and the rest of Scripture, then we'll go from there.

"God presented Jesus as a sacrifice of propitiation (atonement) (4,5) through faith in his blood (6).

He did this to demonstrate his justice (3), because in his forbearance he had passed over (1,2)

(left unpunished) the sins committed beforehand (OT)--he did it to demonstrate his justice (3)

at the present time, so as to be just and the one who justifies (7)." (Ro 3:25-26)
The words that you put in brackets are insertions not present in the text of sacred scripture. If you intend them to be alternative translation you need not bother. If you prefer "propitiation" from the ESV to "sacrifice of atonement" from the NRSV that's okay.
The words in brackets are the Greek meanings of the text, which is the language of the text.
1) What did God "pass over" the sins committed beforehand (OT)?
This is not easy to decipher - what do you intend it to mean?
It means what the text you presented means in

"in his divine forbearance he had passed over the sins previously committed;"

Did God pass over (withhold) his blessings, grace, provision, punishment, penalty, wrath, etc?
Exactly what did he withhold on the sins of the OT until the sacrifice of Jesus?

2) The "what passed over" consisted precisely of?
"the sins previously committed" is what the passage says. Was your question rhetorical?
The answer to this question is the same as the answer to the question above it.

3) How did the "what passed over" demonstrate God's justice?
It demonstrated that God is righteous. This is also rhetorical is it not?
You did not answer the question: How did it demonstrate God's justice?

4) For what did Jesus' sacrificial death atone?
Atonement is not 'for something' it is 'to heal a breach'.

You do understand that, don't you?
Posturing is a poor substitute for substantive response.

The Greek meaning of atonement (hilasterion) is propitiation, reparation, amends for.
The passage is about Jesus expiatory death as atonement to heal the broken relationship between humankind and God.
You are not reckoning with the text.

That is such vacuous human thinking, with no basis in Scripture.

Where do you find any mention of "healing a broken relationship"?

If by "broken relationship," you mean that we are born as (Eph 2:3) and remain God's enemies (Ro 5:10)
until our sin is forgiven by faith in the blood of Jesus (Ro 3:25), that is not a "broken relationship,"
that is God laying down his arms against us and declaring us no longer his enemies.

There was no relationship with God prior to God laying down his arms against us, for we were born his enemies, by our very nature objects of his wrath (Eph 2:3). That's not relationship, that's war.

5) How does Jesus' sacrificial death atone (make reparation, amends) for it?
It doesn't make reparation. Jesus' sacrificial death is an offering of love and praise offered to God to wipe away sins and the offence that sins give to God.
Again, you do not reckon with the text, presenting an answer even more vacuous than the answer before.

Just how does Christ's brutal death on the cross wipe away sin and its offence to God?

Why would God regard his brutal death as wiping sin away?

Why not regard healing all the lepers in Israel, or some other miracles as an offering of love and praise to God to wipe away sin?

6) What is the connection between his atonement and my faith in it (his blood)?
The atonement is made effective through faith. Each of the faithful who is united to Christ in baptism and faith within the body (which is the church) is promised cleansing from sins and eternal life in union with Jesus Christ.
Agreed.

7) How is God both just and the one who justifies?
Another rhetorical question? God is righteous by nature and by definition.
You betray your lack of understanding of the text with all your "rhetorical question" responses.

You did not answer the question how Jesus sacrifice shows God to be both just and the one who justifies.

You did not answer questions 1), 2), 3), 4), 5), 7).

You've got more homework to do.

You do not see penal substitutionary atonement in Ro 3:25-26 because you do not realty understand Ro 3:25-26.
 
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ChristianLife08

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Yes, I read the passages from Romans. And no, they do not constitute an answer furthermore there is no difficulty understanding your stated position on my part; I think that your stated position is wrong.

:) you can believe that. yet, i am attempting to reason from scripture which i have to keep reminding you i've already posted. as where you here are attempting to reason on your logic alone. I don't believe i've seen you use one piece of scripture my friend. I hope you rely on Gods word more than your opinion about it.

Be Blessed my friend
 
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Clare73

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The understanding of, for example, Romans 3:25 is somewhat different; as God made Christ the equivalent of the "mercy seat" that by faith in His blood, God's wrath might be held back.

Mercy Seat has meant "removal of sin by expiatory sacrifice" since the OT was translated into Greek 300 years before the birth of Christ.

The Jewish translators of the OT into the Greek (Septuagint, LXX) presented a propitiatory sacrifice with their translation of Mercy Seat into the Greek words hilasterion epithema.

Hilasterion epithema refers to the lid or cover of the Ark of the Covenant, called kapporeth in the Hebrew.

In the Hebrew it meant the covering of, or the removal of, sin (Ps 32:1) by means of expiatory (animal) sacrifice,

which they translated as epithema (cover) in the Greek.

They added hilasterion, which is an adjective signifying the propitiatory, and translated Mercy Seat as hilasterion epithema.

Eventually, the Greek word hilasterion stood for both Greek words hilasterion and epithema (sacrificial propitiatory cover).

So the OT Hebrew kapporeth = Greek OT hilasterion epithema since ~300 years before the birth of Christ,

which = English NT expiatory propitiation.

The meaning of "Mercy Seat" as "expiatory propitiation" is not anything new to the Greek Scriptures, having been its meaning since the day of their origin.

It is new only to those who did not know the history of Scripture, but are using the history of something other instead.

The NT has always presented Christ as a propitiatory (making satisfaction for, amends for, reparation for) sacrifice (Ro 3:25-26).

"Expiatory propitiation" has been the NT meaning of "atonement" since the Greek NT was written, being taken from the Greek OT (LXX), which was translated from the Hebrew ~300 years before the birth of Christ.
 
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Clare73

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Blind post.

Penal substitution is not in the bible. Christus Victor is. The two are very different.
Both are in the Bible (Ro 3:25-26), and they complement, not contradict.
 
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LittleLambofJesus

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Originally Posted by MoreCoffee
Yes, I read the passages from Romans. And no, they do not constitute an answer furthermore there is no difficulty understanding your stated position on my part; I think that your stated position is wrong.
:) you can believe that. yet, i am attempting to reason from scripture which i have to keep reminding you i've already posted. as where you here are attempting to reason on your logic alone. I don't believe i've seen you use one piece of scripture my friend.
I hope you rely on Gods word more than your opinion about it.

Be Blessed my friend
As we all should :prayer:


Psa 119:148
My eyes are awake through the [night] watches,
That I may meditate on Thy word.
Phl 4:8
Finally brethren, whatever things are true, whatever things noble, whatever things just, whatever things pure, whatever things lovely, whatever things of good report,
if [there is] any virtue and if [there is] anything praiseworthy--meditate on these things.




.
 
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Clare73

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Show us the passages.

Show a passage that says "Jesus was sent to be the lamb of God, to be sacrificed for our sins."
"Behold the Lamb of God who is taking away the sin of the world!" (Jn 1:29)

And a passage that says "Our sins were put on the sinless Jesus."

And a passage that says "He paid the price once and for all for our sins."

And a passage that says "God DID turn His face from Him."
Do you read the Bible?

"But he was pierced for our transgressions,

he was crushed for our iniquities;

the punishment that brought us peace (with God) was upon him,

and by his wounds we are healed." (Is 53:5)
 
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There are many, many Lutherans who embrace the Lutheran view of salvation without subscribing to Penal Substitution. I'm one of them.

The Lutheran doctrine of Justification does not require Penal Substitution. One doesn't need to subscribe to Satisfaction Theory broadly to uphold the Doctrine of Justification. I subscribe to the Lutheran doctrine of Justification as well as Christus Victor theory. I don't see a conflict.

-CryptoLutheran
To me the "Lutheran view" of soteriology is too unsystematic to really be taken seriously, that's why the Reformed are the best known to have the 'intellectual' theologians. The Cristus Victor theory basically overlooks the entire notion of Atonement and cannot address Biblical terms like propitiation.

We have tried to point out that someone was indeed punished, and for us ("It pleased the LORD to bruise Him" and "He was bruised for our iniquities") but you want to believe that this is neither punishment nor vicarious. I think we're stuck here.
The hang-up is strictly Biblical. The Atonement I'm describing is explicitly the Biblical model. Never ever is atonement in Scripture described in terms of transferring a punishment. That's a tradition of men, plain and simple, that's being projected onto the text.

That's why I go back to the fact I've examined the Scriptural term "atonement" where as most people (including Reformed theologians) have not. This is precisely why you don't see Protestants appealing to examples like Moses, Aaron, and Phinehas, all of whom made atonement (turning away God's wrath), and were clearly types of Christ.

The Reformed dilemma comes out the most when we examine the Crucifixion accounts in the Gospels. All those accounts show is Jesus being tortured and physically put to death on a Cross by wicked men. The Reformed must say (and have) that the physical sufferings Jesus endured were nothing compared to the 'invisible' pains that God the Father was inflicting on Jesus in the mean time. So the physical sufferings of Jesus were essentially incidental, since the real suffering was spiritual, invisibly taking place when all eyes were on the nails and blood. And that's why, in sheer desperation, the Reformed scholars cling with all their might to "My God, why have you abandoned me" since they're desperately grasping at whatever straws they can to support a claim that's clearly absent from a plain reading of the crucifixion accounts.

Applying human logic to divine revelation. . .is the key to limited apprehension of God's truth.

It's not complicated.

Christ's atonement paid the penalty that is due at the Final Judgment on the sin of those who believe in him.
You're contradicting yourself. You start of denigrating "human logic" and then you go onto apply a human definition of "atonement" to Christ's work.

Give me ONE plain example in the Bible where the term "atonement" is used and the situation is clearly that of a punishment being transferred. If you cannot, then your definition of "atonement" is of fallible human origin and must be rejected.

The penal substitutionary theory of the atonement is not God's revealed truth, it is just a theory.
It's more than a theory though, it's at the heart of (at least) the Reformed view of salvation. And it's certainly not a theory when it directly and indirectly undermines other Christian dogmas (e.g. "the ancient fellowship between Father and Son was broken").

The Father and the Son are not at odds. They have the same concept of justice, and the same love for the people they saved. The Father did not hate the Son: "The Father loves Me because I lay down my life" (Jn 10:17). I want to add that the cross did not make God loving. Love is the reason for the cross: "For God so loved the world." There are about a half dozen places in the NT where love is given as the reason for the atonement.
That's fine. The problem is that's incompatible with PSub. What you just said is directly at odds with the Protestant theologians I quoted at the start of this thread.

It was the Father's will that the cup of suffering would not pass from Jesus (Matt. 26:39) and Jesus said, "as You will." Think about that. The Father willed the Son to suffer. This isn't kindness. Making someone suffer, this is treating someone like an enemy. Obviously, Jesus wasn't being hurt by the Father for His own sins. It was for ours.
This reveals a serious error of Protestant theology as a whole, because Protestant theology cannot explain human (especially Christian) suffering. The logic is, suffering must mean God is mad at me. And when the Christian believes Jesus took that punishment, then God shouldn't be mad at them, and so they freak out when suffering hits them.

So you have two options here, either abandon you claim that "making someone suffer means treating someone like an enemy," and thus abandon your overall argument that Jesus suffering entails the Father treating Him like an enemy, or else maintain that and leave unexplained the sufferings of Job and Christians.

In fact, I'll up the ante here by showing you a plain example how Reformed scholars have failed you when they point to the "cup" that Jesus must drink. Look at Mark 10:
37 And they said to him, “Grant us to sit, one at your right hand and one at your left, in your glory.” 38 Jesus said to them, “You do not know what you are asking. Are you able to drink the cup that I drink, or to be baptized with the baptism with which I am baptized?” 39 And they said to him, “We are able.” And Jesus said to them, “The cup that I drink you will drink, and with the baptism with which I am baptized, you will be baptized, 40 but to sit at my right hand or at my left is not mine to grant, but it is for those for whom it has been prepared.”
If this is the "cup of God's wrath," then this verse becomes unintelligible. It means Jesus will drink the wrath and the apostles will drink the wrath, completely contradicting PSub. Rather, what this "cup" is is simply the cup of persecution and suffering, which God is granting to bring about some good. And just as if was the Father's will that the cup would not pass from Jesus, so to it was the Father's will that the cup would not pass from the Apostles (who were martyred for the Gospel).
 
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brinny

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Thanks for sharing. Catholicism is interesting. 'Tis good that we can exchange information about what each of us believe. You your belief, and me mine. Since i'm not Catholic, you have clarified for me more what Catholicism is. And even if i do not agree with you, i bid you peace.




God You reign.

icon-candle.png
 
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MoreCoffee

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Jesus was sent to be the lamb of God, to be sacrificed for our sins. Our sins were put on the sinless Jesus. He paid the price once and for all for our sins. God DID turn His face from Him. Jesus cried out asking why God had forsaken Him.

It happened. It is written. It's written in His Word. God's wrath was on Jesus. Jesus absorbed it so that we wouldn't. Seriously. God wouldn't lie.

Show us the passages.

Show a passage that says "Jesus was sent to be the lamb of God, to be sacrificed for our sins."

And a passage that says "Our sins were put on the sinless Jesus."

And a passage that says "He paid the price once and for all for our sins."

And a passage that says "God DID turn His face from Him."
"Behold the Lamb of God who is taking away the sin of the world!" (Jn 1:29)

Do you read the Bible?

But he was pierced for our transgressions, he was crushed for our iniquities; the punishment that brought us peace (with God) was upon him, and by his wounds we are healed." (Is 53:5)

I do read my bible.

Why did you post those verses? Not one of them says the things for which I asked brinny to provide scripture. (Her quotes are in red-ish text above.)

brinny's claim was that what she wrote in her post was, 'It is written. It's written in His Word.', and my reply was that it was not.

I am still waiting from brinny to provide the verses that say what she wrote.
 
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LittleLambofJesus

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As we all should :prayer:

Psa 119:148
My eyes are awake through the [night] watches,
That I may meditate on Thy word.
Phl 4:8
Finally brethren, whatever things are true, whatever things noble, whatever things just, whatever things pure, whatever things lovely, whatever things of good report,
if [there is] any virtue and if [there is] anything praiseworthy--meditate on these things.






.
...that reminds me...
time do some hammock yoga.
I start out with the hands behind the head position with ankles crossed.
:D

Did you learn that in Hindu Yoga class?



.
 
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bornofGod888

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You're contradicting yourself. You start of denigrating "human logic" and then you go onto apply a human definition of "atonement" to Christ's work.

Give me ONE plain example in the Bible where the term "atonement" is used and the situation is clearly that of a punishment being transferred. If you cannot, then your definition of "atonement" is of fallible human origin and must be rejected.

I'll give you one:

"And the LORD called unto Moses, and spake unto him out of the tabernacle of the congregation, saying, Speak unto the children of Israel, and say unto them, If any man of you bring an offering unto the LORD, ye shall bring your offering of the cattle, even of the herd, and of the flock. If his offering be a burnt sacrifice of the herd, let him offer a male without blemish: he shall offer it of his own voluntary will at the door of the tabernacle of the congregation before the LORD. And he shall put his hand upon the head of the burnt offering; and it shall be accepted for him to make atonement for him."

I usually expound upon things myself, but in this case I'll just provide you with the commentary of others:

Leviticus 1:4 You are to lay your hand on the head of the burnt offering, and it will be accepted on your behalf to make atonement for you.

Pulpit Commentary

Verse 4. - And he shall put his hand upon the head of the burnt offering. This putting, or forcibly leaning, the hand on the victim's head, which is the most essential part of the oblation of the victim, was a symbolical act implying "This animal is now for present purposes myself, and its life is my life." It was this act of identification with the offerer which made it be accepted for him to make atonement (literally, covering) for him. The sin offering is the sacrifice which especially symbolizes and ceremonially effects atonement, but the idea of atonement is not absent from the burnt sacrifice. The aspect under which atonement is presented here and elsewhere in the Old Testament is that of covering. But it is not the sin that is covered, but the sinner. Owing to his sin, the latter is exposed to the wrath of a just God, but something intervenes whereby he is covered, and he ceases, therefore, to attract the Divine anger and punishment. No longer being an object of wrath, he becomes at once an object of benevolence and mercy. The covering provided by a sacrifice is the blood or life of an animal, symbolically representing the offerer's own life freely surrendered by him for his acceptance, and typically foreshadowing the blood of Christ.

Gill's Exposition of the Entire Bible

And he shall put his hand on the head of the burnt offering,.... According to the Targum of Jonathan, it was his right hand; but it is generally thought by the Jewish writers that both hands were laid on; so Ben Gersom and Aben Ezra, with whom Maimonides (e) agrees, who says, he that lays on hands ought to lay on with all his strength, with both his hands upon the head of the beast, as it is said, "upon the head of the burnt offering": not upon the neck, nor upon the sides; and there should be nothing between his hands and the beast: and as the same writer says (f), it must be his own hand, and not the hand of his wife, nor the hand of his servant, nor his messenger; and who also observes (g), that at the same time he made confession over the burnt offering both of his sins committed against affirmative and negative precepts: and indeed by this action he owned that he had sinned, and deserved to die as that creature he brought was about to do, and that he expected pardon of his sin through the death of the great sacrifice that was a type of. Moreover, this action signified the transferring of his sins from himself to this sacrifice, which was to be offered up to make atonement for them; so Gersom observes; see Leviticus 16:21. This denotes the translation of our sins from us, and the imputation of them to Christ, who was offered up in our room and stead, to make atonement for them, as follows: and it shall be accepted for him to make atonement for him: that is, the burnt offering should be accepted in his room and stead, and hereby an atonement of his sins should be made for him, typical of that true, real, and full atonement made by the sacrifice of Christ, which this led his faith unto.

(e) Hilchot Maaseh Hakorbanot, c. 3. sect. 13. (f) Hilchot Maaseh Hakorbanot, c. 3. sect. 8. Vid. T. Bab. Menachot, fol. 93. 2.((g) Ib. sect. 14.

Jamieson-Fausset-Brown Bible Commentary

4. shall put his hand upon the head—This was a significant act which implied not only that the offerer devoted the animal to God, but that he confessed his consciousness of sin and prayed that his guilt and its punishment might be transferred to the victim.and it shall be—rather, "that it may be an acceptable atonement."
 
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I will help Brinny out.

Isa 53:4-6, 10, 11—"Surely he has borne our griefs and carried our sorrows; yet we esteemed him stricken, smitten by God, and afflicted. But he was wounded for our transgressions, he was bruised for our iniquities; upon him was the chastisement that made us whole, and with his stripes we are healed. All we like sheep have gone astray; we have turned every one to his own way; and the LORD has laid on him the iniquity of us all ... It was the will of the LORD to bruise him; he has put him to grief; when he makes himself an offering for sin ... By his knowledge shall the righteous one, my servant, make many to be accounted righteous; and he shall bear their iniquities."

Romans 3:23-26 "All have sinned and fall short of the glory of God; they are now justified by his grace as a gift, through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus, whom God put forward as a sacrifice of atonement by his blood, effective through faith. He did this to show his righteousness, because in his divine forbearance he had passed over the sins previously committed; it was to prove at the present time that he himself is righteous and that he justifies the one who has faith in Jesus."

2 Cor 5:21 "For our sake he made him to be sin who knew no sin, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God."

Gal 3:10, 13 "All who rely on works of the law are under a curse; for it is written, 'Cursed be every one who does not abide by all things written in the book of the law, and do them.' ... Christ redeemed us from the curse of the law, having become a curse for us - for it is written, 'Cursed be every one who hangs on a tree.'"

1 Peter 2:24 "He himself bore our sins in his body on the tree, that we might die to sin and live to righteousness."

1 Peter 3:18 "For Christ also died for sins once for all, the righteous for the unrighteous, that he might bring us to God."

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Clare73

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The Atonement I'm describing is explicitly the Biblical model. Never ever is atonement in Scripture described in terms of transferring a punishment. That's a tradition of men, plain and simple, that's being projected onto the text.
Your grand sweeping statements regarding Scripture betray your unfamiliarity with them.
It's hard to imagine that you do not understand the plain meaning of Is 53:4-5:

"Surely he took up our infirmities (sins),
and carried our sorrows,
yet we considered him stricken by God,
smitten by him, and afflicted.
But he was pierced for our transgressions,
he was crushed for our iniquities;
the punishment that brought us peace (with God) was upon him,
and by his wounds we are healed."

That's why I go back to the fact I've examined the Scriptural term "atonement" where as most people (including Reformed theologians) have not.
Your arrogance is showing. . .examination is not the same as understanding.

God made Christ the equivalent of the "mercy seat" that by faith in His blood, God's wrath might be held back.

Mercy Seat has meant "removal of sin by expiatory sacrifice" since the OT was translated into Greek 300 years before the birth of Christ.

The Jewish translators of the OT into the Greek (Septuagint, LXX) stated a propitiatory sacrifice with their translation of Mercy Seat into the Greek words hilasterion epithema.

Hilasterion epithema refers to the lid or cover of the Ark of the Covenant, called kapporeth in the Hebrew.

In the Hebrew it meant the covering of, or the removal of, sin (Ps 32:1) by means of expiatory (animal) sacrifice,

which they translated as epithema (cover) in the Greek.

They added hilasterion, which is an adjective signifying the propitiatory, and translated Mercy Seat as hilasterion epithema.

Eventually, the Greek word hilasterion stood for both Greek words hilasterion and epithema (sacrificial propitiatory cover).

So the OT Hebrew kapporeth = Greek OT hilasterion epithema since ~300 years before the birth of Christ,

which = English NT sacrificial expiatory propitiation.

The meaning of "Mercy Seat" as "sacrificial expiatory propitiation" is not anything new to the Greek Scriptures, having been its meaning since the day of their origin.

It is new only to those who did not know the history of Scripture, but are relying on the history of something other instead.

The NT has always presented Christ as a propitiatory (making satisfaction for, amends for, reparation for) sacrifice (Ro 3:25-26).

"Expiatory propitiation" has been the NT meaning of "atonement" since the Greek NT was written, being taken from the Greek OT (LXX), which was translated from the Hebrew ~300 years before the birth of Christ.

This is precisely why you don't see Protestants appealing to examples like Moses, Aaron, and Phinehas, all of whom made atonement (turning away God's wrath),
What a pathetically lame strawman.

You don't "see Protestants appealing to examples like Moses, Aaron and Phinehas" because
they have nothing to do with sacrifice, which is the Jewish meaning of kapporeth.

The Reformed dilemma comes out. . .
Address the Scriptures, not your misunderstanding of theologians.

You're contradicting yourself. You start of denigrating "human logic" and then
you go onto apply a human definition of "atonement" to Christ's work.
Presumptive posturing.

You are the one applying a human definition of "atonement" to Christ's work, instead of going back to its Jewish meaning in kapporeth, an expiatory sacrifice.

You are the one desperately equating it with Moses, Aaron and Phinehas, which equating is nowhere found in Scripture.

Give me ONE plain example in the Bible where the term "atonement" is used and the situation is clearly that of a punishment being transferred.
Isa 53:5 is a good place to start.

"the punishment that brought us peace (with God) was upon him."

This reveals a serious error of Protestant theology as a whole, because
Protestant theology cannot explain human (especially Christian) suffering.
This is so off the mark that it beggars description.

If you knew the Scriptures, you would know that the NT is very clear on Christian suffering and its purpose.
Protestants don't need a "theology" to explain and understand it.

The logic is, suffering must mean God is mad at me. And when the Christian believes Jesus took that punishment, then God shouldn't be mad at them, and so they freak out when suffering hits them.
Now you've jumped the rails. . .and are not to be taken seriously.
Helps explain why you misunderstand so much of Scripture.

Get your head out of the theology books, and get your heart into the word of God in the Scriptures.

Do you know the First Rule of Holes?

"When you find yourself in one. . .stop digging."

In fact, I'll up the ante here
The only think you are "upping" is your foolish presumptiveness, which makes it hard to even take you seriously.

Your ignorance of the First Rule of Holes is showing.

And you're giving Catholicism a bad name.
 
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