Why I don't believe in Calvinism.

[Elove]

I think Jeremiah 13:1-14 is an irrefutable scriptural argument against Calvinism.

Nope sorry, it's referring to disobedient Israel nothing at all to do with Calvinism Vs Armenianism

 

[Elove]

So God doesn’t love everybody? Only those he chose as his “elect”?

Yeah that's it. If He loved them He wouldn't have left them unjustified and in their sin. God cannot look upon sin. It's plainly laid out in the New Testament. Entire chapters are devoted to how He chooses His people. Some mistakenly think they are in control but like I said entire chapters are devoted to how it is He that is in control like Romans 9 not us. It is only natural that men, in their prideful fallen state, want to be in control of all aspects of their own redemption. Control freak I think is what it's called. We can't be in control, God is.

 

[Bible Highlighter]

It doesn't say what that foreknowledge is does it? You assume that it is that they would "accept Christ." seems more plausible, especially with Eph. 1:5 that He elects for His own reasons and not what people assume He does. The verse is simply saying He knew them ahead of time. There is no spark of good in us the Bible makes that painfully clear. So when God looked down through time all He seen was wicked sinners. He predestined and adopted according to His good pleasure Ephesians 1:5 tells us. All your verse in 1 Peter says is foreknowledge. Just means He knew His elect before the foundation of the world not that they were good. You can break out the dictionary and define foreknowledge but it still doesn't put future in that verse. Why put future before foreknowledge? My Bible doesn't say "future foreknowledge"

Not true. God is aware of all possibilities.

"Woe unto thee, Chorazin! woe unto thee, Bethsaida! for if the mighty works had been done in Tyre and Sidon, which have been done in you, they had a great while ago repented, sitting in sackcloth and ashes." (Luke 10:13).

"And thou, Capernaum, which art exalted unto heaven, shalt be brought down to hell: for if the mighty works, which have been done in thee, had been done in Sodom, it would have remained until this day." (Matthew 11:23).​

This means God would be aware of our potential of what good we are going to do.
God knows what men are going to do.

This fact is proven in Revelation 13:8, and Revelation 17:8. It says very clearly that those who worship the beast in the future did not have their names written in the book of life since the foundation of the world. They were elected to damnation based on what horrible thing GOD knew they were going to do in the future. This confirms God electing based on future foreknowledge in 1 Peter 1:1-2.

 

[Bible Highlighter]

Nope sorry, it's referring to disobedient Israel nothing at all to do with Calvinism Vs Armenianism

What you fail to understand is that Israel is God's chosen people. Yet, they rejected their Messiah and thus they did not have salvation. So just because a person is chosen, does not mean they are saved.

 

[Der Alte]

Well it might hold more weight if it didn't refer to Israel in Old Testament times. I'll look a little closer. I hope those who adhere to Armenianism will take a look at the irrefutable evidence in the New Testament of the evidence of Calvinism

Why does it make any difference? As I understand Calvinism some parts of mankind are "elected" by God to be saved and another part of mankind are "elected" to be condemned and there is nothing anyone in either group can do to change their "election."
.....In the OT God "elected" Israel to be His people and according to Calvinism there is nothing they could do to void that "election." God's clearly stated will was for all, 100%, of Israel and Judah to be as close to God as a belt is to a man's waist but they chose to disobey so God destroyed them.
.....Is it only in the NT under Calvinism that people cannot reject God's election? Where is that written?
For me there are many verses in both testaments which refute Calvinism but the major one for me is John 3:16.

For God so loved the world that whosoever believes in Him will not perish but have everlasting life.​

Here would have been the ideal place for Jesus to endorse the concept of what later became known as Calvinism but He did not say God so loved the "elect" He said "God so loved the world." And He did not say "all of the elect shall have everlasting life." He said "whosoever believes in Him shall have everlasting life."

 

[Der Alte]

Nope sorry, it's referring to disobedient Israel nothing at all to do with Calvinism Vs Armenianism

Does not merit a reasoned response. See my previous post.

 

[Johan_1988]

Is God all loving? If God is all loving how can God pick only certain people to be with him? That doesn’t sound even remotely like love let alone unconditional love.

Unfortunately this is the difficult thing about it. Why would a God of love only choose certain people? The scripture explains this clearly:

Rom 9:18 Therefore hath he mercy on whom he will have mercy, and whom he will he hardeneth.
Rom 9:19 Thou wilt say then unto me, Why doth he yet find fault? For who hath resisted his will?
Rom 9:20 Nay but, O man, who art thou that repliest against God? Shall the thing formed say to him that formed it, Why hast thou made me thus?
Rom 9:21 Hath not the potter power over the clay, of the same lump to make one vessel unto honour, and another unto dishonour?
Rom 9:22 What if God, willing to shew his wrath, and to make his power known, endured with much longsuffering the vessels of wrath fitted to destruction:
Rom 9:23 And that he might make known the riches of his glory on the vessels of mercy, which he had afore prepared unto glory,

If there were no evil or unbelieving people how would God prove his great mercy and love towards us by delivering us constantly from the plans of wicked people. And how will he give an everlasting example of his wrath so that there be no more disobedience? If anybody could save themselves by their own will by saying the sinners prayer then grace would come easy, but is comes by the will of God because its not cheap and it is His grace to give not ours to take.

So humans saved or unsaved have their purpose in the grand scheme of things.

Yours in Christ

 

[Bible Highlighter]

Unfortunately this is the difficult thing about it. Why would a God of love only choose certain people? The scripture explains this clearly:

Rom 9:18 Therefore hath he mercy on whom he will have mercy, and whom he will he hardeneth.
Rom 9:19 Thou wilt say then unto me, Why doth he yet find fault? For who hath resisted his will?
Rom 9:20 Nay but, O man, who art thou that repliest against God? Shall the thing formed say to him that formed it, Why hast thou made me thus?
Rom 9:21 Hath not the potter power over the clay, of the same lump to make one vessel unto honour, and another unto dishonour?
Rom 9:22 What if God, willing to shew his wrath, and to make his power known, endured with much longsuffering the vessels of wrath fitted to destruction:
Rom 9:23 And that he might make known the riches of his glory on the vessels of mercy, which he had afore prepared unto glory,

If there were no evil or unbelieving people how would God prove his great mercy and love towards us by delivering us constantly from the plans of wicked people. And how will he give an everlasting example of his wrath so that there be no more disobedience? If anybody could save themselves by their own will by saying the sinners prayer then grace would come easy, but is comes by the will of God because its not cheap and it is His grace to give not ours to take.

So humans saved or unsaved have their purpose in the grand scheme of things.

Yours in Christ

Romans 9 is not talking about Election of Individuals.

Whenever a person is confused on a verse or chapter in the Bible, all they need to do is put Jesus in it and it becomes clear.

In other words, when you read Romans 9:1-13, you have to read it in terms of how Paul is talking to the Jews (Romans 9:3-6) and not all individuals and how he is trying to tell them that the purpose of Election of the Promises is thru the line of the Messiah with Jacob's line and not Esau's line. Romans 9:13 is not saying God literally loved Jacob and literally hated Esau as individuals (cf. Luke 14:26). Paul is using them as examples of how God was all powerful enough to know which family line to use so as to bring the Promised Messiah (i.e. Jesus). That is what "Election" here is talking about in Romans 9. It is not talking about individual "Election" but it is talking about the "Election of the Promise" or the genealogical line that Jesus would come thru. The Jews were claiming that they were saved based on being of the seed of Abraham and in keeping God's Laws. But they rejected their Messiah. God does not have to conform to old Jewish ways of thinking just because they rejected their Messiah. He will have mercy on whom He will's in the manner He will's with the Messiah that He has chosen (Which was Jesus Christ).

Now, when you read Romans 9:14-16: Well, you have to realize that it is talking about God's plan of salvation with Jesus Christ being their Messiah of whom the Jews rejected. God is saying He will have mercy in the WAY God wants to do things and not according to Jewish thoughts or beliefs (Which one of their ways they considered a person to be right with God was thru circumcision - See Romans 3:1).

And when you read Romans 9:17-18: Well, you have to realize it is making a parallel. For there is a parallel being made of how God is Sovereign and just in setting up the Promised Line of the Messiah (i.e. by having mercy on whom He wills) versus raising up Pharaoh into power to show God's power. How was God's power shown in the life of the Pharaoh? By God making the Pharaoh wealthy? Not exactly. God allowed Pharaoh to be raised up so that God's power was shown in the life of God's miracles being displayed such as the Ten plagues and the parting of the Red Sea. This is why Pharaoh was raised up. It was so that God's power (or miracles) could be displayed (and proclaimed to all the Earth). Just as God had chosen the line of the Messiah so as to display His power (and proclaim such a thing to all the Earth). So this was not some kind of point to prove individual election but to prove the Election of the Promised Line of the Messiah (Who is Jesus Christ). For Jesus is the greatest miracle (of the best form of Election) that there is.

Anyways, when you read on down to verse 24 (Romans 9:24), the point is clear what Paul is really talking about.

I hope this helps, and may God bless you.

 

[Elove]

A

Romans 9 is not talking about Election of Individuals.

Whenever a person is confused on a verse or chapter in the Bible, all they need to do is put Jesus in it and it becomes clear.

In other words, when you read Romans 9:1-13, you have to read it in terms of how Paul is talking to the Jews (Romans 9:3-6) and not all individuals and how he is trying to tell them that the purpose of Election of the Promises is thru the line of the Messiah with Jacob's line and not Esau's line. Romans 9:13 is not saying God literally loved Jacob and literally hated Esau as individuals (cf. Luke 14:26). Paul is using them as examples of how God was all powerful enough to know which family line to use so as to bring the Promised Messiah (i.e. Jesus). That is what "Election" here is talking about in Romans 9. It is not talking about individual "Election" but it is talking about the "Election of the Promise" or the genealogical line that Jesus would come thru. The Jews were claiming that they were saved based on being of the seed of Abraham and in keeping God's Laws. But they rejected their Messiah. God does not have to conform to old Jewish ways of thinking just because they rejected their Messiah. He will have mercy on whom He will's in the manner He will's with the Messiah that He has chosen (Which was Jesus Christ).

Now, when you read Romans 9:14-16: Well, you have to realize that it is talking about God's plan of salvation with Jesus Christ being their Messiah of whom the Jews rejected. God is saying He will have mercy in the WAY God wants to do things and not according to Jewish thoughts or beliefs (Which one of their ways they considered a person to be right with God was thru circumcision - See Romans 3:1).

And when you read Romans 9:17-18: Well, you have to realize it is making a parallel. For there is a parallel being made of how God is Sovereign and just in setting up the Promised Line of the Messiah (i.e. by having mercy on whom He wills) versus raising up Pharaoh into power to show God's power. How was God's power shown in the life of the Pharaoh? By God making the Pharaoh wealthy? Not exactly. God allowed Pharaoh to be raised up so that God's power was shown in the life of God's miracles being displayed such as the Ten plagues and the parting of the Red Sea. This is why Pharaoh was raised up. It was so that God's power (or miracles) could be displayed (and proclaimed to all the Earth). Just as God had chosen the line of the Messiah so as to display His power (and proclaim such a thing to all the Earth). So this was not some kind of point to prove individual election but to prove the Election of the Promised Line of the Messiah (Who is Jesus Christ). For Jesus is the greatest miracle (of the best form of Election) that there is.

Anyways, when you read on down to verse 24 (Romans 9:24), the point is clear what Paul is really talking about.

I hope this helps, and may God bless you.

Amazing. Simply amazing. No matter how plain and simple entire chapters spell it out Armenians will still find a way around it. The 9th chapter of Romans is clear as day. The 24th verse? How about 21-23 right before that? Its plain as day that he is talking about vessels of wrath fitted to destruction and vessels of mercy wheather they be Jew or gentile. Your trying to say the Jews are the vessels he created unto wrath, destruction and dishonor and the gentiles are vessels unto mercy and honor? Cause that's what it sounds like. Paul is saying loud and clear that God in His sovereign wisdom has chosen a people to receive the "free" gift of grace from Jew and gentile as well as some who are likewise appointed to wrath and destruction

 

[Der Alte]

...
Paul is saying loud and clear that God in His sovereign wisdom has chosen a people to receive the "free" gift of grace from Jew and gentile as well as some who are likewise appointed to wrath and destruction

Apparently that is what you think Paul was saying but that is not what God, Himself said. God said He chose the whole house of Israel and Judah not "some" but they would not hear/obey so God destroyed them.

Jeremiah 13:9-11
(9) Thus saith the LORD, After this manner will I mar the pride of Judah, and the great pride of Jerusalem.
(10) This evil people, which refuse to hear my words, which walk in the imagination of their heart, and walk after other gods, to serve them, and to worship them, shall even be as this girdle, which is good for nothing.
(11) For as the girdle cleaveth to the loins of a man, so have I caused to cleave unto me the whole house of Israel and the whole house of Judah, saith the LORD; that they might be unto me for a people, and for a name, and for a praise, and for a glory: but they would not hear.
Jer 13:14
(14) And I will dash them one against another, even the fathers and the sons together, saith the LORD: I will not pity, nor spare, nor have mercy, but destroy them.​

 

[Bible Highlighter]

A

Amazing. Simply amazing. No matter how plain and simple entire chapters spell it out Armenians will still find a way around it. The 9th chapter of Romans is clear as day. The 24th verse? How about 21-23 right before that? Its plain as day that he is talking about vessels of wrath fitted to destruction and vessels of mercy wheather they be Jew or gentile. Your trying to say the Jews are the vessels he created unto wrath, destruction and dishonor and the gentiles are vessels unto mercy and honor? Cause that's what it sounds like. Paul is saying loud and clear that God in His sovereign wisdom has chosen a people to receive the "free" gift of grace from Jew and gentile as well as some who are likewise appointed to wrath and destruction

You spelled "Arminians" wrong.

Anyways, we know Romans 9 is the preferred favored chapter by Calvinists.
However, you have to look at the whole counsel of God's Word and not just Romans 9, my friend.

For example: In Jonah 3, we learn that when the Ninevites forsaken their evil ways as a part of their repentance (seeking forgiveness with God), the Lord had turned back from the wrath and judgment he was going to bring upon them originally. This proves that what we do of our own free will can effect God's judgments or wrath. Please carefully read: Jonah 3:6-10. It was the Ninevites action of forsaking their evil ways that prevented God's judgment that was going to befall them soon.

 

[Johan_1988]

Romans 9 is not talking about Election of Individuals.

Whenever a person is confused on a verse or chapter in the Bible, all they need to do is put Jesus in it and it becomes clear.

In other words, when you read Romans 9:1-13, you have to read it in terms of how Paul is talking to the Jews (Romans 9:3-6) and not all individuals and how he is trying to tell them that the purpose of Election of the Promises is thru the line of the Messiah with Jacob's line and not Esau's line. Romans 9:13 is not saying God literally loved Jacob and literally hated Esau as individuals (cf. Luke 14:26). Paul is using them as examples of how God was all powerful enough to know which family line to use so as to bring the Promised Messiah (i.e. Jesus). That is what "Election" here is talking about in Romans 9. It is not talking about individual "Election" but it is talking about the "Election of the Promise" or the genealogical line that Jesus would come thru. The Jews were claiming that they were saved based on being of the seed of Abraham and in keeping God's Laws. But they rejected their Messiah. God does not have to conform to old Jewish ways of thinking just because they rejected their Messiah. He will have mercy on whom He will's in the manner He will's with the Messiah that He has chosen (Which was Jesus Christ).

Now, when you read Romans 9:14-16: Well, you have to realize that it is talking about God's plan of salvation with Jesus Christ being their Messiah of whom the Jews rejected. God is saying He will have mercy in the WAY God wants to do things and not according to Jewish thoughts or beliefs (Which one of their ways they considered a person to be right with God was thru circumcision - See Romans 3:1).

And when you read Romans 9:17-18: Well, you have to realize it is making a parallel. For there is a parallel being made of how God is Sovereign and just in setting up the Promised Line of the Messiah (i.e. by having mercy on whom He wills) versus raising up Pharaoh into power to show God's power. How was God's power shown in the life of the Pharaoh? By God making the Pharaoh wealthy? Not exactly. God allowed Pharaoh to be raised up so that God's power was shown in the life of God's miracles being displayed such as the Ten plagues and the parting of the Red Sea. This is why Pharaoh was raised up. It was so that God's power (or miracles) could be displayed (and proclaimed to all the Earth). Just as God had chosen the line of the Messiah so as to display His power (and proclaim such a thing to all the Earth). So this was not some kind of point to prove individual election but to prove the Election of the Promised Line of the Messiah (Who is Jesus Christ). For Jesus is the greatest miracle (of the best form of Election) that there is.

Anyways, when you read on down to verse 24 (Romans 9:24), the point is clear what Paul is really talking about.

I hope this helps, and may God bless you.

Hi,I will not make an argument about your theological point of view ,but will give my point of view through the scriptures on what you have said.

I truly believe that this scripture applies to us as well from the gentiles, since Paul himself was an apostle of the gentiles (2 Timothy 1:11). In the book of Romans he speaks to both Jews and gentiles whom have converted. For example:

Rom 1:13 Now I would not have you ignorant, brethren, that oftentimes I purposed to come unto you, (but was let hitherto,) that I might have some fruit among you also, even as among other Gentiles.

Rom 2:17 Behold, thou art called a Jew, and restest in the law, and makest thy boast of God,

God loves all mankind ,since he is blesses good and bad people:

Matt 5:45 That ye may be the children of your Father which is in heaven: for he maketh his sun to rise on the evil and on the good, and sendeth rain on the just and on the unjust.

That is why Jesus thought us to love our enemies in Matt 5:44. We cannot truly understand why God allows people to die and go to hell. Why he does not give salvation to all, but I firmly believe God does it for His and our good , because he knows what he is doing.

I'm sorry if I seem old fashioned in my reading of the scriptures. I have been in a situation where I was tought to interpret scripture in a way that deviated from a literal interpretation. A man from satan tought me an erroneous doctrine and pulled the wool over my eyes and nearly destroyed my life completely, through interpretations that deviated greatly from literal reading of the Word of God. I'm not saying you are such a man, but would caution you from deviating from the literal reading of the Word of God. You don't need to be a genius to understand it. Scripture interprets itself and speaks for itself.

God bless you, I'm not fighting with you ,just giving my heartfelt opinion about all this.

 

[Johan_1988]

Why does it make any difference? As I understand Calvinism some parts of mankind are "elected" by God to be saved and another part of mankind are "elected" to be condemned and there is nothing anyone in either group can do to change their "election."
.....In the OT God "elected" Israel to be His people and according to Calvinism there is nothing they could do to void that "election." God's clearly stated will was for all, 100%, of Israel and Judah to be as close to God as a belt is to a man's waist but they chose to disobey so God destroyed them.
.....Is it only in the NT under Calvinism that people cannot reject God's election? Where is that written?
For me there are many verses in both testaments which refute Calvinism but the major one for me is John 3:16.

For God so loved the world that whosoever believes in Him will not perish but have everlasting life.​

Here would have been the ideal place for Jesus to endorse the concept of what later became known as Calvinism but He did not say God so loved the "elect" He said "God so loved the world." And He did not say "all of the elect shall have everlasting life." He said "whosoever believes in Him shall have everlasting life."

Hi, remember that faith is a gift of God:
Eph 2:8 For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God:

You can only be saved if you have faith in Jesus Christ. Contrary to popular belief not everybody has faith:
2Thess 3:2 And that we may be delivered from unreasonable and wicked men: for all men have not faith.

The condition that John 3:16 applies to you means you have to believe first and evidentially not everyone has the faith to begin with.

 

[Bible Highlighter]

Hi,I will not make an argument about your theological point of view ,but will give my point of view through the scriptures on what you have said.

I truly believe that this scripture applies to us as well from the gentiles, since Paul himself was an apostle of the gentiles (2 Timothy 1:11). In the book of Romans he speaks to both Jews and gentiles whom have converted. For example:

Rom 1:13 Now I would not have you ignorant, brethren, that oftentimes I purposed to come unto you, (but was let hitherto,) that I might have some fruit among you also, even as among other Gentiles.

Rom 2:17 Behold, thou art called a Jew, and restest in the law, and makest thy boast of God,

God loves all mankind ,since he is blesses good and bad people:

Matt 5:45 That ye may be the children of your Father which is in heaven: for he maketh his sun to rise on the evil and on the good, and sendeth rain on the just and on the unjust.

That is why Jesus thought us to love our enemies in Matt 5:44. We cannot truly understand why God allows people to die and go to hell. Why he does not give salvation to all, but I firmly believe God does it for His and our good , because he knows what he is doing.

I'm sorry if I seem old fashioned in my reading of the scriptures. I have been in a situation where I was tought to interpret scripture in a way that deviated from a literal interpretation. A man from satan tought me an erroneous doctrine and pulled the wool over my eyes and nearly destroyed my life completely, through interpretations that deviated greatly from literal reading of the Word of God. I'm not saying you are such a man, but would caution you from deviating from the literal reading of the Word of God. You don't need to be a genius to understand it. Scripture interprets itself and speaks for itself.

God bless you, I'm not fighting with you ,just giving my heartfelt opinion about all this.

It is speaking of Isreal as a nation and not individually of all Jews.

Romans 9 is dealing with salvation of Israel as a nation. Romans 11 (a continued thought from Romans 9) says we have to continue in his goodness otherwise we can be cut off just like the Jews were cut off nationally.

I also consider myself to be old fashioned (even though I am in my mid 40’s). But I am old fashion when it comes to morals or basic morality. For me, it is a violation of basic morality to put somebody on trial for a crime that they had no real control over preventing and the One judging you could have prevented such a thing from happening (via because that is how they normally operate, i.e. they choose some to be saved and some to not be saved based on no conditions whatsoever). In other words, it is like kicking a dog who is sick who has an uncontrollable pooping problem (When the master knows it has an uncontrollable pooping problem). The master could take the animal to the vet, but he just keeps kicking the poor creature. Not nice in my opinion.

 

[Not David]

I'm not well versed in the Aerial toll houses, but it is a fact that Satan wants to accuse us and make us feel bad of God's love. I will create a thread in the Orthodox Forum to discuss about it.
Nevertheless, my point about Calvinism being an innovation keeps firm.

I created a thread called Aerial Toll Houses issue where there was a clarification of aerial toll houses. JB, though he created a text of strawmen on the topic, decided not to participate at all. Most of the argument is based on an extreme literal view of the topic (like believing there are two literal beasts in Revelation) which denies the view of Scripture, Tradition and Liturgy.

 

[Der Alte]

anfang

<JH>Hi, remember that faith is a gift of God:
Eph 2:8 For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God:
You can only be saved if you have faith in Jesus Christ. Contrary to popular belief not everybody has faith:
2Thess 3:2 And that we may be delivered from unreasonable and wicked men: for all men have not faith.
The condition that John 3:16 applies to you means you have to believe first and evidentially not everyone has the faith to begin with.<JH>

ende

Romans 12:3 For I say, through the grace given unto me, to every man that is among you, not to think of himself more highly than he ought to think; but to think soberly, according as God hath dealt to every man the measure of faith.

 

[Johan_1988]

<JH>Hi, remember that faith is a gift of God:
Eph 2:8 For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God:
You can only be saved if you have faith in Jesus Christ. Contrary to popular belief not everybody has faith:
2Thess 3:2 And that we may be delivered from unreasonable and wicked men: for all men have not faith.
The condition that John 3:16 applies to you means you have to believe first and evidentially not everyone has the faith to begin with.<JH>
Romans 12:3 For I say, through the grace given unto me, to every man that is among you, not to think of himself more highly than he ought to think; but to think soberly, according as God hath dealt to every man the measure of faith.

Hi, its talking about believers here "to every man that is among you" it's and issue addressed to believers not any person.

 

[Si_monfaith]

Why are we told to come unto Jesus if it is something we will automatically do?

NT Command: Come unto me, all you that labor and are heavy laden, and I will give you rest. Take my yoke upon you, and learn of me; for I am meek and lowly in heart: and you shall find rest unto your souls. (Matthew 11:28-29).​

Why are we commanded that we should believe in the name of Jesus Christ if it is something we are going to automatically do?

NT Command: This is his commandment, that we should believe in the name of his Son Jesus Christ (1 John 3:23).​

Why are we told to receive the Holy Ghost if it is something we are automatically going to do?

NT Command: Receive the Holy Ghost (John 20:22).

(Related: Revelation 22:17 says, “And the Spirit and the bride say, Come. And let him that heareth say, Come. And let him that is athirst come. And whosoever will, let him take the water of life freely.”).​

Why are we told to have faith in God the Father if it is something we are automatically going to do?

NT Command: Have faith in God (Mark 11:22).​

Why are we commanded to repent if it is something we are automatically going to do?

NT Command: "The times of ignorance God overlooked, but now he commands all people everywhere to repent," (Acts of the Apostles 17:30).
​

"And ye shall seek me, and find me, when ye shall search for me with all your heart." (Jeremiah 29:13).

This is just one of the many reasons why Calvinism doesn't make any sense, unless somebody wants to change the plain written meaning of the text of the Bible every time they see a "free will" statement, or command, or a choice given to us, etc.

Bible nowhere says humans could freely choose. "Believe" doesn't mean "you could believe" or "you could produce faith". You haven't quoted a single scripture to rice one could produce faith.

Instead Bible says only the sheep can believe (John 10:26), that is, only those who were appointed for eternal life (Acts 13:48).

Your theology is only based on implications while disallowing Scripture.

 

[Si_monfaith]

Peter is elect according to the FOREKNOWLEDGE of GOD.
This means God chose Peter based on His future foreknowledge.
This implies that God chose Peter correctly because Peter actually did good for God's kingdom and he was not utterly useless (producing no fruit whatsoever).

According to Calvinism, God elects based on no conditions whatsoever. But His Word says He elects according to His future foreknowledge (Which implies that there is something in the future that is swaying God's decision in choosing).

Philippians 2:13: "for it is God who is at work in you, enabling you both to will and to work for his good pleasure".

Foreknowledge precedes human will & not the other way round. If humans could choose otherwise, foreknowledge becomes meaningless. Thus foreknowledge means human will isn't free.

 

[fhansen]

Philippians 2:13: "for it is God who is at work in you, enabling you both to will and to work for his good pleasure".

Foreknowledge precedes human will & not the other way round. If humans could choose otherwise, foreknowledge becomes meaningless. Thus foreknowledge means human will isn't free.

Or, that God, omniscient and existing outside of time, simply cannot help but know in advance what the free choices of His creatures, who do exist in time, will be.