Who has a problem with that Biblewriter? Matthew gives several prophecies literally fulfilled in his gospel. What's your point?My "assumption" is that when the Bible explicitly says anything will happen, it means exactly what it says. (Allowing, of course, for the use of everyday figures of speech, which all writing uses.)This is backed up by the fact that every one of them that has already been fulfilled has been fulfilled literally, down to the tiniest detail. As an example, Daniel 11:5-32 is so precisely accurate that unbelievers claim its very accuracy is proof that it could not have been written until after it happened. And well over fifty prophecies about our Lord's first coming were fulfilled literally, including absolutely unbelievable details, such as that He would be born of a virgin.
Can you quote me saying as much? I don't think you can.Your "assumption" is that none of these prophecies actually means what it says, even though it is explicitly stated. You assume, without a shred of evidence, that these prophecies actually mean something entirely different from what they say. The fact that there is no Biblical basis for this assumption makes it a "rank assumption."
Frankly, I don't get where you're going...so show an "explicit" example of something I said is fulfilled, and we can go from there. At this point you're assuming a lot, or attributing something you think I said to me.This is based on an interpretation of the meaning of a prophecy. But that interpretation directly contradicts many other scriptures.
Once again...it's based on what you think they say. Take the "Israel of God for example..that's pretty "explicit", but because you believe there's a literal restoration of Israel...you can't see it.So once again, my position is based on what the scriptures actually say, and your position is based on assumptions about what those words mean.
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