It isn't the same manner as English. Mass nouns were introduced either from Mideval languages or English. Probably English, because τη is a recent inflection of the article.Your 1st 2 sentences are meaningless. That being the case, as you insist, then we should not read any more arguments from you about the meaning of words in the NT. My understanding is Greek has been the language of Greece since the beginning. Greek might have undergone some changes over centuries but, much in the same manner as English, modern scholars know the meaning of archaic words.
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