you twist my question or maybe you misunderstood it, let me word it this way: are you saying when Jesus said If I be lifted up that I will draw all men unto to me that that meant all men or just the elect
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Obviously it means "all men", but the question is, what does "all men" mean? You act as if there's only one possible meaning for the Greek phrase that is translated into "all men". Is that just ignorance or are you purposely ignoring the other possibilities? Such as "Jews and Gentiles both" as opposed to just Jews only?
In the context of John 12 some Greeks had just approached Christ, thus Christ says "I will draw all men to me"
It cannot possibly mean "every individual" as Christ does not draw 100% of individuals. For in that very same chapter (John 12) it says "therefore they could not believe because God is blinding their eyes and hardening their hearts" (v40)
It is contradictory to say that God is drawing 100% of individuals but at the same time be hardening and blinding some individuals. So either the Bible is contradictory or your understanding of the phrase "all men" is wrong. You are ignoring the context of the passage. You are ignoring the other meanings of the word "all" in the Greek. You assert (with no scholarly evidence or arguments) that the word "all" always and without exception means "every single individual since Adam". On what basis do you insist that?
that the world in john 3:16 meant the whole world or just the elect,
World means world. But again, "kosmos" has around 10 definitions. Why do you insist, with no evidence and no argument, that only 1 definition is a possibility here? Seems the burden of proof is on you, not anyone else. You insist and presuppose and assert that "kosmos" only and always means "every single individual since Adam", then accuse people who believe that John is employing one of the other 9 definitions that they are "changing the word". No change is being done brother. No change is necessary. What they disagree with is your assertion that only one definition exists and that John only used that one definition. And again, you assert this with no evidence and no exegesis and no argument. Yet you have the nerve to accuse others of being unreasonable and imposing beliefs onto the text. Do you see the hypocrisy?
that whosoever will call upon the name of the Lord, means all can call or only the elect will call?
Whosoever will call upon the name of the Lord means exactly that. Whosoever will call upon the name of the Lord. Not a single person more, or a single person less. Only those that call upon the name of the Lord.
The phrase "whosoever will call up on the name of the Lord" does not say anything about
who will do this or
why they do it. It is simply an indicative statement. Everyone who does call, will be saved.