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Featured Why are so many Christians against annihilation in hell when scripture supports it?

Discussion in 'Controversial Christian Theology' started by DM25, Jul 11, 2018.

  1. ClementofA

    ClementofA Well-Known Member Supporter

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    Which Strongs is that? The original Strongs, the new Strongs, the strongest Strongs, or online Strongs, etc? The poster you replied to did not quote the original Strongs, but what is stated here:

    http://biblehub.com/greek/2851.htm
    http://biblehub.com/greek/166.htm

    Which defines aionios as "agelong, eternal". Likewise from the same page says the "NAS Exhaustive Concordance" and the "HELPS Word-studies". Furthermore likewise says the LSJ lexicon & many others i've quoted here before.


    https://www.tentmaker.org/books/hope_beyond_hell.pdf



     
  2. ClementofA

    ClementofA Well-Known Member Supporter

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    BDAG makes references to "chastisement" which can certainly be corrective. Synonyms of "chastisement" given by Webster's dictionary are "castigate, chasten, correct, discipline, penalize, punish". For the verb, kolazo, BDAG admits to "Aristotle's limitation of the term...to disciplinary action" which Danker opines is "not reflected in general usage" (p.555).


    The Universalist position on NT usage of these words is that in contexts where such words occur (e.g. Mt.25:46; 2 Pet.2:9), in reference to Divinely given eschatological &/or postmortem punishment, they are not indicative of vindictive retributive punishment, but rather of a corrective punishing or chastening for the good of the offender.

    The following sources allege that the words under consideration were used of corrective punishment before, soon after & at the time of Christ.

    According to this alleged quote of Trench κόλασις, as opposed to τιμωρία, has "more the notion of punishment as it has reference to the correction and bettering of the offender (see Philo, Leg, ad Cai. I; Josephus, Antt. ii. 6. 8); it is ‘castigatio,’ and naturally has for the most part a milder use than τιμωρία. Thus Plato (Protag. 323 e) joins κολάσεις and νουθετήσεις together: and the whole passage to the end of the chapter is eminently instructive as to the distinction between the words: οὐδεὶς κολάζει τοὺς ἀδικοῦντας ὅτι ἠδίκησεν, ὅστις μὴ ὥσπερ θηρίον ἀλογίστως τιμωρεῖται, ... ἀλλὰ τοῦ μέλλοντος χάριν ἵνα μὴ αὖθις ἀδικήσῃ; the same change in the words which he employs, occurring again twice or thrice in the sentence; with all which may be compared what Clement of Alexandria has said, Strom. iv. 24; and again vii. 16, where he defines κολάσεις as μερικαὶ παιδεῖαι, and τιμωρία as κακοῦ ἀνταπόδοσις. And this is Aristotle’s distinction (Rhet. i. 10): διαφέρει δὲ τιμωρία καὶ κόλασις· ἡ μὲν γὰρ κόλασις τοῦ πάσχοντος ἕνεκά ἐστιν· ἡ δὲ τιμωρία, τοῦ ποιοῦντος, ἵνα ἀποπληρωθῇ: cf. Ethic. Nic. iv. 5: τιμωρία παύει τῆς ὀργῆς, ἠδονῆν ἀντὶ τῆς λύπης ἐμποιοῦσα. It is to these and similar definitions that Aulus Gellius refers when he says (Noct. Att. vi. 14): ‘Puniendis peccatis tres esse debere causas existimatum est. Una est quae νουθεσία, vel, κόλασις, vel παραίνεσις dicitur; cum poena adhibetur castigandi atque emendandi gratiâ; ut is qui fortuito deliquit, attentior fiat, correctiorque. Altera est quam ii, qui vocabula ista curiosius diviserunt, τιμωρίαν appellant. Ea causa animadvertendi est, cum dignitas auctoritasque ejus, in quem est peccatum, tuenda est, ne praetermissa animadversio contemtum ejus pariat, et honorem levet: idcircoque id ei vocabulum a conservatione honoris factum putant.’ There is a profound commentary on these words in Göschel’s Zerstreute Blätter, part 2, p. 343–360; compare too an instructive note in Wyttenbach’s Animadd. in Plutarch. vol. xii. p. 776." https://www.blueletterbible.org/lang/trench/section.cfm?sectionID=7

    So in favor of κόλασις (or κολάζω) being corrective Trench lists quotes from Plato, Aristotle, Philo, Josephus, Aulus Gellius & Clement of Alexandria. To those we could add early church universalists such as Oregon, Gregory Nyssa & many others. Moulton & Milligan continue to add to that list as follows:

    "The meaning ";cut short,"; which the presumable connexion with κόλος and κολούω would suggest, seems to be the original sense of the word. In the Paris Thesaurus we find quotations for the meaning ";prune"; (κόλασις τῶν δένδρων), and a number of late passages where the verb denotes ";correcting,"; ";cutting down"; a superfluity. Thus Galen ad Galatians 1:1-24 τὰ γὰρ ἐναντία τῶν ἐναντίων ἰάματά ἐστι, κολάζοντα μὲν τὸ ὑπερβάλλον. Of course this may be a derived sense, like that of castigo and of our ";correct,"; but in any case it is clearly a familiar sense during the NT period, and we cannot leave it out of consideration when we examine this very important word." https://www.studylight.org/lexicons/greek/2849.html

    In addition to those, under the section on κολάζω in TDNT, J. Schneider notes regarding "inscr. given by Steinleitner from Phrygian and Lydian monuments of the imperial period" that in "these inscriptions the sins punished by deity are those against the deity itself, e.g. violations of the sacred cultic laws. The deity smites the offender with sickness and infirmity, or even punishes himself and his family with death. The sinner can win back the grace of the deity only by open confession of his guilt. In this way alone can he be liberated from sickness and misfortune."

    TDNT adds regarding Philo's view of the "legislative power of God" that this "power divides into two branches, the one for the rewarding of the good and the other for the punishment of sinners. Philo's view of God includes the insight that in God mercy is older than punishment (Deus Imm.,76) and that God would rather forgive than punish (Spec.Leg., II,196...). Punishment is for those who are not amenable to reason (Agric.,40). Thus punishment may seem to be the greatest evil, but it is to be regarded as the greatest blessing for fools, loc. cit. This is a Stoic view" ("Theological Dictionary of the New Testament", TDNT, ed. G. Kittel, Vol.3, p.815).

    The "New International Dictionary of New Testament Theology and Exegesis" (NIDNTTE, ed. Moises Silva, 2014, Vol. II, p.716-718) concurs with TDNT's remarks above.

    NIDTTE also refers to the 5 NT occurrences of the "derived vb. κολαφίζω" (kolaphizo, Strongs # 2852), "to strike (with the fist), fig. torment". It is used twice of "the Jewish leaders who struck Jesus during his trial before the Sanhedrin (Matt 26:67 = Mark 14:65)." (NIDTTE, p.718).

    "Then they spat in His face and beat Him with their fists; and others slapped Him," (Mt.26:67; NASB).

    There are no indications of an intent to correct Jesus via such actions by these evil human beings. Rather it seems vindictive or sadistic. Likewise with the occurrences of kolaphizo at 1 Pet.2:20 & 1 Cor.4:11, does the "buffeting" or ""to strike (with the fist), fig. torment" have no hint of correction.

    In all 4 cases of kolaphizo mentioned so far, they all are at the hands of men & do not indicate a corrective or beneficial purpose to those receiving such "torments". However, in the 5th occurrence of this word in the New Testament, that changes.

    In 2 Cor.12:7 is the only one of the 5 that refer to a Divinely given kolaphizo (compare Mt.25:46). In this context the Lord gives Paul a thorn in the flesh to "torment" or "buffet" [κολαφίζῃ] him, not as a sadistic or vindictive retribution with no thought of benefit to Paul, but rather for Paul's own good:

    "7 And lest I should be exalted above measure through the abundance of the revelations, there was given to me a thorn in the flesh, the messenger of Satan to buffet me, lest I should be exalted above measure. 8 For this thing I besought the Lord thrice, that it might depart from me. 9 And he said unto me, My grace is sufficient for thee: for my strength is made perfect in weakness. Most gladly therefore will I rather glory in my infirmities, that the power of Christ may rest upon me. 10 Therefore I take pleasure in infirmities, in reproaches, in necessities, in persecutions, in distresses for Christ's sake: for when I am weak, then am I strong."

    In Matthew 25:46, like 2 Cor.12:7, is another New Testament instance of Divinely given sufferings, usually translated "punishment" (κόλασιν) (v.46) of "fire" (v.41). Shall it not also be, as the Divinely given sufferings of 2 Cor.12:7, for the good of the recipients?

    Clearly the words under consideration are not always used of correction. So in order to determine whether or not their usage in eschatological and/or postmortem passages like Matthew 25:46 & 2 Peter 2:9 is corrective, one must consider the contexts. In that light, therefore, it seems questionable what use there would be in an examination of all of the many ancient Greek occurrences of the words. Will they inform us of the view of the New Testament God of love in regard to how He interprets them in an eschatological context? Or do extrabiblical usages, such as you've cited above, often come under the classification of false gods, fables & myths which are to be rejected, as in:

    "Not giving heed to Jewish myths, and commandments of men, that turn from the truth." (Titus 1:14).

    2 Timothy 4:4: And they shall turn away their ears from the truth, and shall be turned unto fables.

    Do we find out what the real - good - God thinks on a subject by studying what the - evil - false gods think about it? Or how - evil - revengeful, bitter men with sadistic motivations use the words in question? They will punish from their own - evil - motives, whereas the - good - God, Love Omnipotent, always does so from the motive of the betterment of His created beings.

    In support of that there is much to be brought forth from the inspired Scriptures & nothing in opposition to it. There are examples where His wrath, destruction, wounding, punishment, anger and torments are intended for the good of those who receive such. And no examples to the contrary.

    Mat 18:34 And his lord was wroth, and delivered him to the tormentors, till he should pay all that was due unto him.

    Matthew 25:46: “And these shall be coming away into chastening(kolasin) eonian, yet the just into life eonian.” (CLV)...1 John 4:18: “for fear has chastening(kolasin).” (CLV)

    The servant who knows the master’s will and does not get ready or does not do what the master wants will be beaten with many blows. But the one who does not know and does things deserving punishment will be beaten with few blows. Luke 12:47-48a

    https://www.tentmaker.org/books/hope_beyond_hell.pdf
     
    Last edited: Jul 14, 2018
  3. Der Alter

    Der Alter This is me about 1 yr. old. Supporter

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    Do you have evidence that Matt 25:46 refers to the Millennial age? I don't see the word χίλιοι/xilioi , thousand in the passage. I agree scripture does not contradict itself but lots of folks jump through all kinds of hoops trying to make isolated out-of-context proof texts line up with their assumptions/presuppositions. I await your scriptural evidence to support your claim re: Matt 25:46.
     
  4. Der Alter

    Der Alter This is me about 1 yr. old. Supporter

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    There is a figure of speech the lexical name is "epezeuxis" in which a word is repeated for emphasis. See final entry "for ever and ever" below.
    Epizeuxis: or, Duplication The Repetition of the Same Word in the Same Sense. When the word is repeated in close and immediate succession, no other word or words coming between, it is called GEMINATIO , pronounced Gem-i-n ´-tio , which means a doubling, duplication, a re-doubling . It is also called ITERATIO ( It´-er- -ti-o ), iteration; CONDUPLICATIO ( con-d -pli-ca´-tio ), conduplication , or full doubling . When the words do not immediately succeed each other, but are separated by one or more intervening words, the figure is then called EPIZEUXIS , pronounced Ep´-i-zeux´-is epi ), upon , and ( zeugnumi ), to yoke , or join closely together . The intervening words thus form the yoke which joins the repeated words

    We may give the figure the English name of Duplication, Gemination, Iteration, or Repetition. It is a common and powerful way of emphasizing a particular word, by thus marking it and calling attention to it. In writing, one might accomplish this by putting the word in larger letters, or by underlining it two or three times. In speaking, it is easy to mark it by expressing it with increased emphasis or vehemence. How important for us to notice, in the Scriptures, the words and expressions which the Holy Spirit has thus marked and emphasized in order to impress us with their importance! pp. 200-201
    II. NOUNS AND PRONOUNS
    ( b ) In singular and genitive plural
    ( b ) In singular and genitive plural A noun is repeated in the genitive plural in order to express very emphatically the superlative degree which does not exist in Hebrew. See under Idiom . Thus this figure is a kind of Enallage ( q.v. ), or exchange, by which a noun in the genitive plural, is used instead of a superlative adjective. …
    Dan. 2:37 . Ezek. 26:17 . A king of kings : i.e. , the most mighty king.
    Dan. 2:47 . God of gods : i.e. , the great, living, or true God. The most mighty God.
    Dan. 8:25 . The Prince of princes : i.e. , the most powerful Prince. Hos. 10:1

    1 Tim. 6:15 . The King of kings, and Lord of lords. Compare Rev. 17:14 and 19:16 . Rev. 1:6 . The ages of the ages , i.e. , to the remotest age, for ever and ever. pp. 301-302
    E.W. Bullinger ​

     
  5. SarahsKnight

    SarahsKnight Jesus Christ is this Knight's truth. Supporter

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    Nobody's denying that, though, that Jesus spoke of Gehenna. Where we differ is whether the Bible teaches that it is a place where souls live forever in torment or a place where souls are destroyed.

    I've got breaking news for hell-lovers. Jesus and the OT have in fact often called the fire itself (obviously referring to the fire of Gehenna) eternal, everlasting, and unquenchable, but as to the unbelieving humans themselves, there has never been a time in Scripture in which fire from God preserved them instead of consumed and destroyed them. Heck, even in the parable of Lazarus and the Rich Man it still didn't say that the rich man was being tormented forever (believe or not, fire will torment you with pain for a time before it completes its clearly destructive work and kills you; that's just demonstrable fact), and that's only if you even take the story literally, which presents a lot of other problems if you do.

    The only time in all of Scripture I know of where fire from God preserved the object it was set against was the use of the burning bush as a sign to Moses that he was being spoken to by God. Because, yeah, if God wanted to make it so that His fire would preserve an object or creature instead of destroy it, He could. He can do anything He wants. And yet the only time it does preserve an object instead of destroy it, it is not even to punish a human but just use a bush to reveal Himself to Moses? There's no reason for me to believe the traditional view of Gehenna as eternal preservation and living death in any kind of torment, instead of literal destruction, in light of so much Scripture where the fire from God is clearly said to destroy, burn up, and consume. (I'm not going to take forever and a half to list every single one, okay? I mean, I think there literally as much as a hundred verses and passages. But here's just one right off the top of my head to at least get you thinking: Hebrews 10:26-31. Right there it says the fire will "devour" the adversaries. I can't imagine for one second that God would mince words here if He meant to teach that the fire would instead do something even worse than literally devour and destroy.)

    I mean, sorry. Just not buying it. I wasted the first twelve years of my life after being graciously saved by Christ buying the eternal torment doctrine. And after enduring a torturous year suffering from scrupulosity in which I was so certain that I had done something to make it so that God now hated me - or had all along pre-destined in the Calvinistic view to hate me - so much that He wanted to send me to a hell where I would be tortured forever, coming to study the view of conditional immortality which I now uphold once He had begun to heal me from such a dreadful mental disease? Not-so-subtle threats from traditionalists no longer frighten me.
     
  6. Oldmantook

    Oldmantook Well-Known Member

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    Again, look at its immediate context which is not hard to do. The passage does not contain chilioi so the germane question is, does it refer to eternity or to an age of time? The context better fits with my claim that it refers to age instead of eternity which you have presumed upon.
    1) The judgment takes place on earth upon Christ's return. Those who are judged are those persons who are still alive. Thus it cannot be the great white throne judgment which takes place after the millennial reign upon Christ's return and when the rest of the dead (not those alive) are resurrected.
    2) Verse 34 states that Jesus tells his sheep on the right to "inherit the kingdom." What do you suppose this means? What kingdom? How long? I assume you know or agree that what happens after this statement is that Jesus' return ushers in his 1,000 year reign on earth. If this is the case then the sheep - those people alive at his return - enter into the millennial age.
    3) This cannot be the bema seat judgment either as the sheep are unredeemed. They are not the "raptured" saints who return with Christ.
    4) For reasons already mentioned, this cannot be the GWT judgment. Also, there is no reference to any kingdom associated with the GWT judgment while the sheep/goat does indeed reference a kingdom.
    Therefore, the purpose of the Sheep/Goat judgment is to see who will inherit the kingdom (Matt 25:34) and who will not (Matt 25:41). The purpose of the Great White Throne judgment is to see who will be sent to the lake of fire (Rev 20:15).

    Given the above context, I submit that Matt 25:46 references a limited age of time, specifically the 1,000 year reign of Christ on earth whereby the Son establishes his kingdom rule. Those sheep thus have age-long life during this millennial age. I see no where in this passage any support for interpreting this passage as referencing "eternal" - or even alluding to it.
     
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  7. redleghunter

    redleghunter Thank You Jesus! Supporter

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    You are basing your people or objects surviving fire on the material naturalistic world principles.
     
  8. SarahsKnight

    SarahsKnight Jesus Christ is this Knight's truth. Supporter

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    Yeah, and like I said, the Bible doesn't say that the fire of God does any different than natural fire. It is the traditional view that is based on what mankind thinks should happen to unbelievers.
     
  9. redleghunter

    redleghunter Thank You Jesus! Supporter

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    You then believe the physics of our world and universe apply to the eternal and Divine?
     
  10. Dan the deacon

    Dan the deacon Well-Known Member

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    Now is that hell (as being discussed here) or sheol before the visitation of Christ?
     
  11. SarahsKnight

    SarahsKnight Jesus Christ is this Knight's truth. Supporter

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    Nice spin to make it sound like I am trying to minimize God in some way.

    No, I don't. God does not have to act by the natural laws of the universe at all.

    However, the Bible says continuously how fire from God has been used to bring about a death penalty. Sodom and Gomorrah's destruction, Elijah calling fire from the heavens down upon the soldiers who demanded he come with them against his will, Matthew 10:28 and Hebrews 10:27 which are just two of the numerous verses that could scarcely be more clear that the fire of Gehenna will kill its victims via consumption/destruction like fire typically does. The Bible says it numerous times, using terms such as burned up, consumed, destroyed, and devoured. I am not exactly having to make any presumptions about God's method of punishment or how He should operate here.

    Heck, 2 Peter 2:6 not only tells you in unambiguous words what happened to the wicked in that example by saying God "burned them to ashes", but also immediately says afterward that they were made an example of what will happen to the ungodly. How much more clear could it be? What the fire from God will do?
     
  12. Der Alter

    Der Alter This is me about 1 yr. old. Supporter

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    Logical fallacy argument from silence. The word "kingdom" does not occur in Revelation at all. I don't submit to the theory of a "millenial age" which the word "aionos" refers to.

    What happens to those who are not sent to the lake of fire from the GWT?

    In my [post #162] this thread, I did a study of the meaning of the word aionios in the NT.
    Your view seems to presuppose that Christ's rule will end after 1000 years. Which is not supported by scripture. In your view does the age-long life of those in the kingdom end?
     
  13. Der Alter

    Der Alter This is me about 1 yr. old. Supporter

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    When God wants fire to destroy it will destroy, when God wants fire not to destroy it will not destroy.
    Exodus 3:3 Daniel 3:27
     
  14. ClementofA

    ClementofA Well-Known Member Supporter

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    Revelation 1:6 N-AFS
    GRK: ἐποίησεν ἡμᾶς βασιλείαν ἱερεῖς τῷ
    NAS: and He has made us [to be] a kingdom, priests
    INT: made us a kingdom priests to the

    Revelation 1:9 N-DFS
    GRK: θλίψει καὶ βασιλείᾳ καὶ ὑπομονῇ
    NAS: in the tribulation and kingdom and perseverance
    KJV: and in the kingdom and patience
    INT: tribulation and kingdom and endurance

    Revelation 5:10 N-AFS
    GRK: θεῷ ἡμῶν βασιλείαν καὶ ἱερεῖς
    NAS: You have made them [to be] a kingdom and priests
    INT: God of us kings and priests

    Revelation 11:15 N-NFS
    GRK: Ἐγένετο ἡ βασιλεία τοῦ κόσμου
    NAS: saying, The kingdom of the world
    KJV: saying, The kingdoms of this world
    INT: Became the kingdoms of the world

    Revelation 12:10 N-NFS
    GRK: καὶ ἡ βασιλεία τοῦ θεοῦ
    NAS: and the power, and the kingdom of our God
    KJV: strength, and the kingdom of our God,
    INT: and the kingdom of the God

    Revelation 16:10 N-NFS
    GRK: ἐγένετο ἡ βασιλεία αὐτοῦ ἐσκοτωμένη
    NAS: of the beast, and his kingdom became
    KJV: and his kingdom was full of darkness;
    INT: became the kingdom of it darkened

    Revelation 17:12 N-AFS
    GRK: εἰσίν οἵτινες βασιλείαν οὔπω ἔλαβον
    NAS: received a kingdom, but they receive
    KJV: have received no kingdom as yet; but
    INT: are which a kingdom not yet received

    Revelation 17:17 N-AFS
    GRK: δοῦναι τὴν βασιλείαν αὐτῶν τῷ
    NAS: and by giving their kingdom to the beast,
    KJV: their kingdom unto the beast,
    INT: to give the kingdom of them to the

    Revelation 17:18 N-AFS
    GRK: ἡ ἔχουσα βασιλείαν ἐπὶ τῶν
    INT: which has kingship over the
     
  15. Der Alter

    Der Alter This is me about 1 yr. old. Supporter

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    Please show me that verse which says God has or will destroy even one soul in Hell? If God wants to destroy a soul He can do it right here on earth. Read your proof text again. What God created He can certainly destroy.
    I will say this once and only once if your intent here is to belittle and insult those who disagree with you we can end this discussion right here.


    Neither does the "story" of Lazarus and rich man say that the rich man died. But it does say that the rich man can't get out of the place he is.

    Luke 16:26
    (26) And beside all this, between us and you there is a great gulf fixed: so that they which would pass from hence to you cannot; neither can they pass to us, that would come from thence.
    You stopped reading your proof text too soon. The next few verses say that there is a punishment worse than death.

    Hebrews 10:28-31
    (28) He that despised Moses' law died without mercy under two or three witnesses:
    (29) Of how much sorer punishment, suppose ye, shall he be thought worthy, who hath trodden under foot the Son of God, and hath counted the blood of the covenant, wherewith he was sanctified, an unholy thing, and hath done despite unto the Spirit of grace?
    (30) For we know him that hath said, Vengeance belongeth unto me, I will recompense, saith the Lord. And again, The Lord shall judge his people.
    (31) It is a fearful thing to fall into the hands of the living God.

    What you can or cannot imagine does not determine what God will/will not do.

    There are many. many people around who are just as adamant and convinced as you are that what they believe is right and everyone else is dead wrong e.g.; LDS, JW, UU, OP UPCI, WWCG, INC etc.
    In my [post #136] is my scriptural support for "eternal punishment" i.e. punishment that never ends as Jesus said in Matthew 25:46.
     
  16. joshua 1 9

    joshua 1 9 Well-Known Member Supporter

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    Angels as the eyes of God are a popular interpretation of the scriptures that talk about the Eyes of the Lord.

    Ezekiel 10:12 Their entire bodies, including their backs, their hands and their wings, were completely full of eyes, as were their four wheels.

    Rev 4:4 Each of the four living creatures had six wings and was covered with eyes all around, even under their wings.

    Proverbs 15:3 The eyes of the LORD are everywhere, keeping watch on the wicked and the good.

    2 Chronicles 16:9
    For the eyes of the LORD roam throughout the earth to show Himself strong on behalf of those whose heart is fully devoted to him.

    zech 4:19 the seven eyes of the LORD that range throughout the earth

    rev 8:2 And I saw the seven angels who stand before God,

    1 Peter 3:12
    For the eyes of the Lord are on the righteous, and His ears are inclined to their prayer.
     
    Last edited: Jul 14, 2018
  17. Hank77

    Hank77 Well-Known Member Supporter

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    Nehemia Gordon is the one who explains the hand washing ceremony.
     
  18. Oldmantook

    Oldmantook Well-Known Member

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    Actually, your argument is the one based on silence. I gave you a detailed explanation on the context of Matt 25:46. This verse in the context of this passage DOES CONTAIN the word "kingdom" (v.34). So for you to claim that my argument is based on silence is a false charge. You and I know that the Bible does not contain the word "trinity" but I suppose you believe in that concept don't you? Furthermore, Rev 20:4 states that the martyred saints who were beheaded live and reign with Christ for 1,000 years. If there is no literal kingdom, what and whom do they rule over? You can choose to take this figuratively if you like, but to me a literal translation fits quite nicely with my view. I don't have to resort to allegorizing the plain meaning of scripture. Thus I find your view to be unconvincing.

    That depends whether you believe only the unsaved are present at the GWT. Regardless, do you believe the GWT and the sheep/goat judgment is the same event.

    You are putting words in my mouth so to speak as I made no such claim. I specifically stated that judgment of the sheep/goats only applies to the age of Jesus' millennial reign. I did not write that Jesus' rule ends after that time. That age only applies to the Jesus' millennial rule. Of course, Jesus continues to reign after that time. The scripture is clear: For He must reign until He has put all His enemies under His feet. 1 Cor 15:25
     
  19. redleghunter

    redleghunter Thank You Jesus! Supporter

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    Examples of fire completely destroying people, cities and objects is temporal judgments.

    The GWT judgments are eternal.
     
  20. redleghunter

    redleghunter Thank You Jesus! Supporter

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    Excellent exegesis.
     
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