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Featured What is the Day of the Lord?

Discussion in 'Eschatology - Endtimes & Prophecy Forum' started by Quasar92, Jul 28, 2017.

  1. jgr

    jgr Well-Known Member Supporter

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    He declares that it did; obviously not literally, but metaphorically. If his intended meaning was of a future literal event, then he would have rendered the description in the future tense.

    But he did not.

    Rather, he was employing dramatic apocalyptic metaphoric language common throughout Scripture to symbolically describe events of great signficance, in this case deliverance from his adversaries, probably including Saul.

    The majority of early commentators understand the passage thus.
     
  2. keras

    keras Writer of Bible prophecy studies.

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    A lot of prophecy is written in the present or past tense. This is well recognized by Bible scholars and by anyone who knows from history, that they remain unfulfilled. Example of a prophecy written before the event; in past tense. Zechariah 9:9 See your King coming, His victory won, [Jesus] riding on a donkey......

    You notion that Bible prophecy is 'dramatic apocalyptic and metaphoric', is just your way of rejecting what the Prophets are telling us will happen. The Commentaries are useless about the Prophetic Word, because it was impossible for anyone before now, to comprehend it. Daniel 12:9-10
     
    Last edited: Aug 13, 2017
  3. jgr

    jgr Well-Known Member Supporter

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    Zechariah 9:9 is written in the present tense.

    If you believe that Daniel 12:9-10 is referring to the last days, I'm sure you're aware that we've been in them for over 2000 years:

    Hebrews 1
    1 God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets,
    2 Hath in these last days spoken unto us by his Son, whom he hath appointed heir of all things, by whom also he made the worlds;

    There is nothing that has not been comprehensible since that time because "...the testimony of Jesus is the spirit of prophecy.” (Revelation 19:10)
     
  4. keras

    keras Writer of Bible prophecy studies.

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    Depends on the translation. My REB tells it in past tense.
    Past or present. my point is made; prophecy is written with the certainty of its fulfilment, as though it has already happened, the sure Word of Bible Prophecy.
    The last days are the final few years before Jesus Returns to earth for His Millennium reign. The fact that people throughout this Church age have thought they were in the last days, is irrelevant and they were all wrong. Proved by how we are not yet, but very close to that period.
    I admit that saying 'very close' is my opinion, but supported by the world situation and the prophesies of there being 2 'days' [2000 years, Hosea 6:2, Luke 13:32] of this Church age.
    Prophecy is able to be comprehended, but only by believers, 1 Corinthians 14:22b, and only by those who clear their minds of false teachings. 2 Timothy 4:3-4
     
  5. claninja

    claninja Well-Known Member

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    First let's take a look at a prophecy of judgment that was proclaimed by the prophet Micah against Israel: Samaria and Jerusalem. This prophecy is in regards to the judgment on Israel, that would occur later by the Assyrians. This prophecy has already been fulfilled. Here, we can see 'dramatic apocalyptic, and metaphoric' language. So I have to ask, when the God used the Assyrians to judge Israel, did the Lord literally come down out of heaven? Did the mountains literally melt and valleys split?

    Micah 1:1-5
    The word of the Lord that came to Micah of Moresheth during the reigns of Jotham, Ahaz and Hezekiah, kings of Judah—the vision he saw concerning Samaria and Jerusalem.
    2Hear, you peoples, all of you, listen, earth and all who live in it, that the Sovereign Lord may bear witness against you, the Lord from his holy temple. Judgment Against Samaria and Jerusalem
    3Look! The Lord is coming from his dwelling place; he comes down and treads on the heights of the earth. 4The mountains melt beneath him and the valleys split apart, like wax before the fire, like water rushing down a slope. 5All this is because of Jacob’s transgression, because of the sins of the people of Israel. What is Jacob’s transgression? Is it not Samaria? What is Judah’s high place? Is it not Jerusalem?
     
  6. jgr

    jgr Well-Known Member Supporter

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    How does your REB word it?
    The writer of Hebrews declared that it was the last days when he wrote. He wasn't wrong.
    I fully agree.
     
  7. parousia70

    parousia70 I'm livin' in yesterday's tomorrow Supporter

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    Really?
    What exactly did I say that was heretical?
    Please be specific.

    I QUOTED Jeremiah who testified that the desolation of Jerusalem by the Babylonians was "The Day of the Lord" of which there have been many in Israel's history.

    If you say I am a heretic by Quoting Jeremiah, then you are calling Jeremiah a heretic too.

    Such is untenable and I will continue to staunchly stand up against the willful disregard for scripture that you display.
     
  8. keras

    keras Writer of Bible prophecy studies.

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    Because what is prophesied is quite possible to actually happen it isn't metaphorical at all. It is just an unfulfilled prophecy, that can and will happen on the great and terrible Day of the Lord's wrath.
    Your belief that Micah 1:15 happened circa 720 BC, is a typical preterist notion, that fails to see how the Lord will literally fulfil His Judgement upon the world. Could happen any day now. Are you ready?
     
  9. keras

    keras Writer of Bible prophecy studies.

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    Zechariah 9:9b...See, your King is coming to you, His cause won, His victory gained, humble and mounted on a donkey, on a colt the foal of a donkey.
    It is a well accepted principal that Bible prophecy can be phrased in past tense, because of the surety of its eventual fulfilment.
     
  10. JLB777

    JLB777 Newbie Supporter

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    The Day of the Lord is the coming of the Lord with all His saints, to gather His people together, at the resurrection and rapture, in which the antichrist and the wicked are destroyed.


    15 For this we say to you by the word of the Lord, that we who are alive and remain until the coming of the Lord will by no means precede those who are asleep. 16 For the Lord Himself will descend from heaven with a shout, with the voice of an archangel, and with the trumpet of God. And the dead in Christ will rise first. 17 Then we who are alive and remain shall be caught up together with them in the clouds to meet the Lord in the air. And thus we shall always be with the Lord. 18 Therefore comfort one another with these words. But concerning the times and the seasons, brethren, you have no need that I should write to you. 2 For you yourselves know perfectly that the day of the Lord so comes as a thief in the night. 3 For when they say, “Peace and safety!” then sudden destruction comes upon them, as labor pains upon a pregnant woman. And they shall not escape. 4 But you, brethren, are not in darkness, so that this Day should overtake you as a thief. 5 You are all sons of light and sons of the day. We are not of the night nor of darkness. 1 Thessalonians 4:15-5:5


    Key Verse's:

    • that we who are alive and remain until the coming of the Lord will by no means precede those who are asleep.
    • we who are alive and remain shall be caught up together with them
    • For you yourselves know perfectly that the day of the Lord so comes as a thief in the night.
    • when they say, “Peace and safety!” then sudden destruction comes upon them




    JLB
     
  11. Hal A Peno

    Hal A Peno Well-Known Member

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    srth
     
    Last edited: Sep 12, 2017
  12. claninja

    claninja Well-Known Member

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    Now I never said micah 1:15 occurred already, I said micah 1:1-5 has.
     
  13. Quasar92

    Quasar92 Well-Known Member Supporter

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    I suggest you do a search engine review of the Biblical meaning of the Day of the Lord.


    Quasar92
     
  14. Hal A Peno

    Hal A Peno Well-Known Member

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    gbfgg
     
    Last edited: Sep 12, 2017
  15. FredVB

    FredVB Regular Member

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    The "Day of the Lord" is a phrase used with different meanings in scriptures in different places, not just one. The Day of Yahweh is more specifically the time of judgment coming, in prophetic scriptures.
     
  16. Quasar92

    Quasar92 Well-Known Member Supporter

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    See the OP for starters. The Day of the Lord is depicted throughout the Bible as the wrath of God, fully delineated by Jesus, in Rev.6 through 19.


    Quasar92
     
  17. Quasar92

    Quasar92 Well-Known Member Supporter

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    The OP describes it in part, while Jesus does a thorough delineation of it in Rev.6 through 19.


    Quasar92
     
  18. claninja

    claninja Well-Known Member

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    I would say that is going a little too far, friend. Name calling will get you no where. Let's look at the definition of preterism:
    'Preterism is a Christian eschatological view that interprets some (partial preterism) or all (full preterism) prophecies of the Bible as events which have already happened'

    Are you saying that no biblical prophecy, whether OT or NT, has ever yet been fulfilled?

    So when Jesus said in Luke 4:21 'He began by saying to them, “Today this scripture is fulfilled in your hearing.”', he really did not fulfill Isaiah 61:1-2a?

    Everyone who is a Christian is at least a partial preterist, as Jesus fulfilled many OT prophecies.

    If God has revealed all truth and answers of mysteries to you, praise God for his blessings. But please, no name calling, and be gentle with us who know less than you.
     
  19. parousia70

    parousia70 I'm livin' in yesterday's tomorrow Supporter

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    Indeed this is plainly true.
    Our friend Hal is, oddly, calling himself a heretic as He is clearly a partial preterist.
     
  20. parousia70

    parousia70 I'm livin' in yesterday's tomorrow Supporter

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    How so?
    Please be specific.

    All I have done is point out that SCRIPTURE TEACHES that "the day of the Lord" is a term used often for multiple, different judgments of God upon nations throughout history.

    If you disagree, then use the scriptures I cited and explain why they do not mean what I contend.

    I'll even give you another.

    The destruction of Babylon by the Medes in 539 BC was a PAST "Day of the Lord" event, according to Isaiah:

    Isaiah 13:1
    13 The burden against Babylon which Isaiah the son of Amoz saw.

    13:6 Wail, for the day of the Lord is at hand!
    It will come as destruction from the Almighty.

    13:17 “Behold, I will stir up the Medes against them,
    Who will not regard silver;

    This is an actual historical event that took place in 539 BC when the Medes overthrew Babylon as Isaiah prophesied.

    Several things happened at this time, according to Isaiah, including this:

    13:10
    For the stars of heaven and their constellations
    Will not give their light;
    The sun will be darkened in its going forth,
    And the moon will not cause its light to shine.

    AND THIS:
    13:13
    Therefore I will shake the heavens,
    And the earth will move out of her place,
    In the wrath of the Lord of hosts
    And in the day of His fierce anger.

    Sound Familiar?

    According to Isaiah, the 539 BC destruction of Babylon by the Medeo-Persian armies was to be rightfully understood as one of many Judgment events in scripture that the prophets called "The Day of the Lord".

    You have no scriptural mandate to teach otherwise.
    If you did, you would cite it, chapter and verse, just as I have.

    Our readers are smart, and I am confident they can make an informed decision as to which of our positions has the weight of scripture behind it.
     
    Last edited: Aug 15, 2017
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