You really don't know what a lexicon or a dictionary is do you? But you wouldn't need one because you know everything off the top of your head. What a word means is not your private interpretation and I noticed, you didn't even bother to read what exegetical scholars had to say about it.
Perfect (
G5056 - telos τέλος) Of the 45 times it's used in the NT, 35 times it's translated 'end'. It signifies "having reached its end" (telos), "finished, complete, perfect." it is used of persons,
"complete," conveying the idea of goodness without necessary reference to maturity or what is expressed under (a), Mat 5:48; 19:21; Jam 1:4 (2nd part); 3:2. It is used thus of God in Mat 5:48. (Vine’s Dictionary)
That's exactly what it means signifies "having reached its end" (
telos), "finished, complete, perfect.". That's exactly what it means in Matt 5:48:
"You, therefore, must be perfect, as your heavenly Father is perfect."
This is why I can't talk theology with you as much as I would like to. In theology semantics are vital so defining your terms is essential. Words have inherent meaning Jason, you don't get to reassign meaning to suit your own private interpretation based on a random cross reference.
Being perfect in the sense Jesus is using it speaks to the 'divine nature', received by grace through faith based on the completed work of Christ.
In order that in the coming ages He might display the surpassing riches of His grace, demonstrated by His kindness to us in Christ Jesus. For it is by grace you have been saved through faith, and this not from yourselves; it is the gift of God, not by works, so that no one can boast. (Eph. 2:7-9)
Now here is your connection to the sacrificial lamb, that was to be without blemish or spot (Ephesians 5:27, Philippians 2:15).
‘Without blemish’ (
G299 ἄμωμος amōmos) - Without blame (blemish, fault, spot), faultless, unblamable.
Used of Christ (Eph 1:4), the church (Eph. 5:27), the resurrection (Col. 1:22), the purging of the conscience (Heb. 9:14), the blood of Christ (1 Peter 1:19), the perserverance of the saints (Jude 1:24), and words without guile (Rev. 14:5).
That's how you do an exegetical study, based on that you can do a real exposition. Compulsive cross referencing neglects the context of the proof text, making it a pretext.
Words have inherent meaning, 'perfect' means 'complete' in Matt. 5:27. That's not my opinion, that is what it literally means.
First of all you haven't the patience to discuss eternal security and there is no such thing as Anti-Sinless Perfectionism. I studied at a Nazarene Bible college, the only denomination that actually embraces the Wesleyan, 'entire sanctification' doctrine. It was the basis for the Holiness Movement and the spin off Pentecostal churches. After Justification by faith and reliability of Scripture it was one of the most important doctrines I started studying decades ago.
I'll tell you what Jason, you want to talk about these things then at least learn what it is your are pontificating about. Is your view Arminian or Calvinist because I know your not Catholic?
Last chance, you want to talk theology then define your terms.
Grace and peace,
Mark