Eudaimonist
I believe in life before death!
- Jan 1, 2003
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Pi is sinful. Let them eat cake! Angelfood!
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You think my highest level of education is relevant?
I know better.
"Let your yes be yes and your no be no for whatever is more than these is of the evil one" - Jesus
Is pi infinite? Yes or No? Yes, in principle... but no because in reality you can't calculate it? That contradicts the above and is therefore sin.
God does not create confusing relationships. It is written "God is not the author of confusion but of peace" 1Co 14:33 . I therefore am justified in saying that just because you have a sign like "divide" doesn't mean you can always use it.
Let's see how you handle my scriptures...
Ah yes. In this world for sure. But god, being able to do anything he wants, certainly could have constructed our universe so that pi came out to a rational number. Couldn't he?My answer would be that you can't have it any other way. You can't make a circle without using pi; similarly, you can't have euclidean geometry without allowing for circles to be made. In fact, given that pi shows up in other equations and places, not just circles, it's inescapable. You'd have to ditch math, geometry, the works entirely to escape pi.
But God did say be fruitful and multiply...
So, what exactly happens in this Math Hell you're ready to consign us to? Long division without a calculator?
Let's see how you handle my scriptures...
I'm going to go out on a limb here and say that even God cannot violate logic. You can't change the value of the constant '3' just like you can't change the value of the constant 'pi'.Ah yes. In this world for sure. But god, being able to do anything he wants, certainly could have constructed our universe so that pi came out to a rational number. Couldn't he?
But God did say be fruitful and multiply...
So, what exactly happens in this Math Hell you're ready to consign us to? Long division without a calculator?
I'm going to go out on a limb here and say that even God cannot violate logic. You can't change the value of the constant '3' just like you can't change the value of the constant 'pi'.
Evidently you missed my point when I said. "Obviously, the ratio of 2.00336 is a function of the geometry of the surface on which the circle was scribed: an oblate spheroid." And, recall that the circle was not created as the equator, but one that was coincident with the equator. It was created the same way the smaller one at the North Pole was: by a series of points equidistant from a single point, X. Which is pretty much the definition of a circle.Well, thats not true. In measuring the radius from the north pole to the equator you are not measuring the radius of the circle created by the equator. You're measuring the outside edge of a bowl-shaped 3-dimensional object. The value of pi never changes - you're just measuring incorrectly. Interesting point though!
Hah. Evidently I did miss your point. Sorry bout that (never was a fan of reading what other people write!Evidently you missed my point when I said. "Obviously, the ratio of 2.00336 is a function of the geometry of the surface on which the circle was scribed: an oblate spheroid." And, recall that the circle was not created as the equator, but one that was coincident with the equator. It was created the same way the smaller one at the North Pole was: by a series of points equidistant from a single point, X. Which is pretty much the definition of a circle.
No argument from me.Patashu said:Okay, if you're measuring a circle while on a spherical plane then, yes, you would get differing values with radius but you haven't abolished pi; you'd still need to use pi in one or two values if you wanted to write a formula for the circumference of circles on a sphere. (I'm tempted to try and derive one now, actually...)
Consider that spherical geometry, locally, behaves like euclidean geometry. As you inscribed smaller and smaller circles or used bigger and bigger spheres you'd approach pi as the ratio once more.
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Okay, I went there.
We have a sphere with radius R. On the sphere's surface a circle is drawn encompassing all points r away from a point o and an angle $ is subtended at the center of the sphere between o and any r. What is the circumference, c, of this circle in terms of r?
$ = r/2piR
x = Rsin$
c = 2pix
thus
c = 2piRsin$ = 2piRsin(r/2piR)
Probably not in simplest terms but you get the idea. And, again, to someone who is bound to the sphere's surface, spherical geometry reduces to euclidean geometry locally anyway. You could discover that pi exists by making your circles smaller and smaller (or higher and higher up if that's allowed)
is geometry something that God can change? Geometry seems to be on the same level as logic - unchangeable. What do you think?No argument from me.
The ratio of c/d, whatever it's value, depends on the geometry of the surface on which it's scribed, and on non-Euclidean surfaces, the size of the circle. My only point is that it would seemingly be no great feat for an all powerful god to just bend the geometry of the universe ever so little to make c/d = 3.00000000000000. . . . and make it nice and neat.